You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete. His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends. This has gone on for a month and a half. When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it "would be better if he were not here." What would you do next?
A. Tell him that he has a very promising career in anything he chooses and soon he will feel better.
B. Tell him that he needs an antidepressant and it will take about 4 weeks to work.
C. Speak with his mother about getting him together more with his friends.
D. Assess his suicide risk
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Assess his suicide risk
The correct answer is D: Assess his suicide risk. Given Adam's statement about it being better if he were not here and his recent behavioral changes, there are clear signs of potential suicidal ideation. It is crucial to prioritize assessing his immediate safety. This involves asking direct questions about suicide, assessing the presence of a suicide plan, means, and intent. This step is essential in ensuring Adam's safety and providing appropriate support and intervention if needed.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Offering vague reassurance about his promising future does not address the immediate concerns of potential suicide risk.
B: Jumping to prescribing antidepressants without a thorough evaluation and risk assessment is premature and does not address the urgency of the situation.
C: Speaking with his mother about getting him together with friends overlooks the seriousness of Adam's statement and the need for immediate intervention.
Question 2
You are preparing to perform synchronized electrical cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator on your unstable adult patient who is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia at 160 beats per minute on the monitor. Which of the following initial energy settings would be recommended if he was exhibiting a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, in which his palpable carotid pulse matches the rhythm on the monitor?
A. Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules
B. Defibrillation at 100 joules
C. Synchronized cardioversion at 360 joules
D. Defibrillation at 360 joules
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules
The correct initial energy setting for synchronized electrical cardioversion in a patient with stable supraventricular tachycardia is A: Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules. This is because the patient is hemodynamically stable, with a narrow complex, regular rhythm, and a palpable carotid pulse matching the monitor. The recommended energy range for synchronized cardioversion in such cases is typically between 50-100 joules. This energy level is sufficient to terminate the tachyarrhythmia without causing unnecessary harm to the patient.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because defibrillation energy settings (100-360 joules) are too high for a stable supraventricular tachycardia patient. Using such high energy levels could lead to unnecessary myocardial damage and potentially worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, the correct choice is A, as it aligns with the principles of providing effective treatment while minimizing the risk of
Question 3
The nurse is preparing to measure the vital signs of a 6-month-old infant. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A. Respirations are measured; then pulse and temperature.
B. Vital signs should be measured more frequently than in an adult.
C. Procedures are explained to the parent, and the infant is encouraged to handle the equipment.
D. The nurse should first perform the physical examination to allow the infant to become more familiar with her and then measure the infant's vital signs.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Respirations are measured; then pulse and temperature.
The correct answer is A because in infants, it is recommended to measure respirations first, followed by pulse and temperature. Infants have irregular breathing patterns, so measuring respirations first allows for the most accurate reading. Pulse and temperature can be affected by handling the infant, so they should be measured after respirations.
Choice B is incorrect because vital signs in infants are typically measured at the same frequency as in adults, unless there are specific concerns or conditions.
Choice C is incorrect because involving the parent in the procedure and encouraging the infant to handle the equipment may not be appropriate or necessary for measuring vital signs accurately.
Choice D is incorrect because it is not necessary to perform a physical examination before measuring vital signs in an infant. It is important to follow the standard sequence of measuring respirations, then pulse, and temperature for accurate readings.
Question 4
A 30 year old male is stabbed in the right chest. On arrival in the ED, he is very short of breath. His HR is 120 bpm, BP is 80/50. His neck veins are flat. On auscultation of the chest, there is diminished air entry on the right side, and there is dullness posteriorly on percussion. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Hemothorax
B. Pericardial tamponade
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Hypovolemia from the liver injury
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Hemothorax
The correct answer is A: Hemothorax. In this scenario, the patient presents with signs of respiratory distress, tachycardia, hypotension, flat neck veins, diminished air entry on the right side, and dullness on percussion, which are indicative of a hemothorax. Hemothorax is characterized by the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity, leading to lung compression and impaired ventilation. The symptoms align with the physical exam findings of decreased breath sounds and dullness due to blood occupying the pleural space. The absence of signs like muffled heart sounds or pulsus paradoxus rules out pericardial tamponade. The lack of tracheal deviation and mediastinal shift discounts tension pneumothorax. Hypovolemia from liver injury may present with similar vital sign abnormalities but would not manifest with specific chest exam findings like dullness on percussion. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and exam findings, hemothorax is the
Question 5
A 30 year old male is stabbed in the right chest. On arrival in the ED, he is very short of breath. His HR is 120 bpm, BP is 80/50. His neck veins are flat. On auscultation of the chest, there is diminished air entry on the right side, and there is dullness posteriorly on percussion. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Hemothorax
B. Pericardial tamponade
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Hypovolemia from the liver injury
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Hemothorax
The correct answer is A: Hemothorax. In this scenario, the patient presents with signs of respiratory distress, tachycardia, hypotension, flat neck veins, diminished air entry on the right side, and dullness on percussion, which are indicative of a hemothorax. Hemothorax is characterized by the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity, leading to lung compression and impaired ventilation. The symptoms align with the physical exam findings of decreased breath sounds and dullness due to blood occupying the pleural space. The absence of signs like muffled heart sounds or pulsus paradoxus rules out pericardial tamponade. The lack of tracheal deviation and mediastinal shift discounts tension pneumothorax. Hypovolemia from liver injury may present with similar vital sign abnormalities but would not manifest with specific chest exam findings like dullness on percussion. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and exam findings, hemothorax is the
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Question 6
A nurse is designing a teaching program for individuals who have recently immigrated to the United States from Iraq. Which of the following considerations is necessary for culturally competent patient teaching?
A. Use materials developed previously for U.S. citizens.
B. Use all visual materials when teaching content.
C. Use a lecture format to teach content with few questions.
D. Develop written materials in the patient's native language.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Develop written materials in the patient's native language. This is necessary for culturally competent patient teaching as it ensures that the information is accessible and understandable to the individuals who have recently immigrated from Iraq. By providing materials in their native language, it enhances their comprehension and engagement with the content. This approach shows respect for their cultural background and helps to bridge any language barriers.
A: Using materials developed previously for U.S. citizens may not be effective as they may not be culturally relevant or easily understood by individuals from Iraq.
B: Using all visual materials may be helpful, but it is not sufficient on its own to ensure cultural competence in patient teaching.
C: Using a lecture format with few questions may not be engaging or interactive enough for individuals from Iraq, and it may not cater to their preferred learning style.
The amount that Medicare and Medicaid will pay long-term care facilities for services is based on
A. The resident's background
B. The resident's need upon admission and throughout his stay
C. The size of the facility
D. The financial contributions from the resident's family
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because Medicare and Medicaid reimburse long-term care facilities based on the resident's need for services upon admission and throughout their stay. This is determined through assessments of the resident's health condition, functional status, and care requirements. The reimbursement is directly tied to the level of care provided to ensure that residents receive appropriate services.
Choice A (The resident's background) is incorrect because reimbursement is not based on the resident's personal history but on their current health and care needs. Choice C (The size of the facility) is incorrect as reimbursement is not determined by the facility's size but by the individual resident's care requirements. Choice D (The financial contributions from the resident's family) is incorrect as Medicare and Medicaid payments are not influenced by the resident's family contributions but are solely based on the resident's care needs.
The second phase in the critical thinking process entails:
A. Exploration of the issue
B. Induction of an event
C. Appraisal of the situation
D. Integration of decision
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Appraisal of the situation. In the second phase of the critical thinking process, it is essential to evaluate and assess all relevant information and perspectives regarding the issue at hand. This helps in understanding the complexity of the situation, identifying biases or assumptions, and determining the credibility of sources. By appraising the situation, one can make informed decisions based on logical reasoning and evidence.
Summary:
A: Exploration of the issue - This is typically done in the initial phase of critical thinking where the problem or question is identified.
B: Induction of an event - Induction involves making generalizations based on specific observations and is not specifically related to the second phase of critical thinking.
D: Integration of decision - This is a later stage where decisions are synthesized based on the appraisal of the situation, making it an incorrect choice for the second phase.
You are on-scene with a patient in cardiac arrest. You turn the monitor/defibrillator on and attach the pads to the patient. When it begins to analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm, it signals 'low battery' and then shuts off. You have no other batteries available, and an electrical plug is not available. The patient subsequently dies despite adequate CPR and advanced airway and ventilation during transport. Which of the following could result?
A. Manslaughter charges could be brought against the paramedic in charge of the unit
B. Negligence charges could be brought against the paramedic in charge of the unit
C. Battery charges could be brought against the entire service
D. Defamation charges could be brought against the entire crew on scene
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Negligence charges could be brought against the paramedic in charge of the unit.
Rationale:
1. Negligence: In this scenario, the paramedic failed to ensure the equipment was properly charged, leading to the death of the patient.
2. Duty of Care: The paramedic had a duty to ensure the equipment was functional to provide appropriate care to the patient.
3. Breach of Duty: By not ensuring the defibrillator had adequate battery power, the paramedic breached their duty of care.
4. Proximate Cause: The lack of functioning equipment directly contributed to the patient's death.
5. Legal Liability: Negligence in providing care can result in legal charges being brought against the individual responsible for the patient's care.
Summary:
A: Manslaughter charges are not applicable as there was no intent to harm the patient.
C: Battery charges are not relevant as it refers to physical harm, not the lack of battery power in equipment
You are preparing to perform synchronized electrical cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator on your unstable adult patient who is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia at 160 beats per minute on the monitor. Which of the following initial energy settings would be recommended if he was exhibiting a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, in which his palpable carotid pulse matches the rhythm on the monitor?
A. Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules
B. Defibrillation at 100 joules
C. Synchronized cardioversion at 360 joules
D. Defibrillation at 360 joules
Correct answer:
The correct initial energy setting for synchronized electrical cardioversion in a patient with stable supraventricular tachycardia is A: Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules. This is because the patient is hemodynamically stable, with a narrow complex, regular rhythm, and a palpable carotid pulse matching the monitor. The recommended energy range for synchronized cardioversion in such cases is typically between 50-100 joules. This energy level is sufficient to terminate the tachyarrhythmia without causing unnecessary harm to the patient.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because defibrillation energy settings (100-360 joules) are too high for a stable supraventricular tachycardia patient. Using such high energy levels could lead to unnecessary myocardial damage and potentially worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, the correct choice is A, as it aligns with the principles of providing effective treatment while minimizing the risk of
The nurse is preparing to conduct a mental status examination. Which statement is true regarding the mental status examination?
A. A patient's family is the best resource for information about the patient's coping skills
B. Gathering mental status information during the health history interview is usually sufficient
C. Integrating the mental status examination into the health history interview takes an enormous amount of extra time
D. To get a good idea of the patient's level of functioning, performing a complete mental status examination is usually necessary
Correct answer:
Rationale: Option B is correct because gathering mental status information during the health history interview is a crucial and efficient way to assess a patient's mental state. Here's the rationale:
1. Mental status assessment during the health history interview allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's current mental state.
2. It helps in identifying any immediate concerns or issues that may impact the patient's overall health and well-being.
3. Gathering mental status information early on can guide further assessment and interventions.
4. Conducting a separate mental status examination may be necessary in some cases, but integrating it into the health history interview streamlines the assessment process.
In summary, option B is correct as it emphasizes the importance and efficiency of gathering mental status information during the health history interview, while the other choices provide inaccurate or irrelevant statements.
You are on the scene of a vehicle accident with entrapment. Why is it so important to ensure the battery has been disconnected before attempting to enter the vehicle or extricate the driver?
A. To make sure the vehicle is not capable of moving during the extrication process and injuring anyone involved
B. To ensure any undeployed airbags do not discharge and cause an injury to the patient or anyone involved
C. To make sure that no one in contact with the vehicle gets electrocuted
D. To prevent the possibility of a fire starting in the passenger compartment during the extrication process
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: To ensure any undeployed airbags do not discharge and cause an injury to the patient or anyone involved. It is important to disconnect the battery before attempting to enter the vehicle or extricate the driver because doing so can prevent any undeployed airbags from suddenly deploying during the extrication process. Deploying airbags can cause serious injuries to the patient or rescuers due to the force and speed at which they inflate. Disconnecting the battery helps to eliminate this risk and ensures a safer extrication process.
Choice A is incorrect because the main concern is not about the vehicle moving during extrication. Choice C is incorrect as electrocution risk is more related to high-voltage components in hybrid or electric vehicles, not just the standard battery. Choice D is incorrect as the battery disconnection is primarily to prevent airbag deployment, not to prevent fires in the passenger compartment.
A 30-year-old woman presents with a complaint of a red, painful, and swollen knee. She has a history of gout. On examination, the knee is warm, erythematous, and tender to touch. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Septic arthritis
Correct answer:
The most likely diagnosis is gout (Choice C) based on the patient's presentation of red, painful, and swollen knee, with a history of gout. Gout is a form of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to acute flares of pain and swelling. The characteristic features of gout include sudden onset of symptoms, typically affecting one joint at a time, with warmth, erythema, and tenderness. In this case, the patient's history of gout and the classic presentation of an acutely inflamed joint support the diagnosis.
Osteoarthritis (Choice A) is a chronic degenerative joint disease characterized by gradual onset of joint pain, stiffness, and limited range of motion. It typically affects weight-bearing joints and is not associated with acute inflammation as seen in gout.
Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is an autoimmune disease that causes symmetrical joint pain, morning stiffness, and joint deformities
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) was passed as a response to
A. Lack of funding for long-term care facilities
B. Reports of abuse and poor care in long-term care facilities
C. Complaints from long-term care facility staff about resident behavior
D. Nursing assistants being unable to pass competency examinations
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) was passed in response to reports of abuse and poor care in long-term care facilities. This legislation aimed to improve the quality of care in nursing homes by setting standards for training and competency of staff, ensuring residents' rights, and enhancing the quality of life for residents.
Incorrect choices:
A: Lack of funding for long-term care facilities - While funding issues may impact the quality of care, OBRA was primarily focused on addressing abuse and poor care.
C: Complaints from long-term care facility staff about resident behavior - Staff complaints about resident behavior were not the primary reason for the passage of OBRA.
D: Nursing assistants being unable to pass competency examinations - While this could be a concern, OBRA was more about setting standards and regulations to improve care quality, not solely about the competency of nursing assistants.
A patient has pitting pedal edema, crackles, and an elevated blood pressure. The nurse concludes that the patient has fluid volume excess. Which type of reasoning did the nurse use?
A. Theoretical
B. Inductive
C. Deductive
D. Conceptual
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Inductive reasoning. The nurse used inductive reasoning by observing specific signs and symptoms (pitting pedal edema, crackles, elevated blood pressure) and making a general conclusion (fluid volume excess). Inductive reasoning involves deriving general principles from specific observations.
A: Theoretical reasoning involves applying established theories or principles to a situation. In this case, the nurse is not applying a theoretical framework but rather drawing a conclusion from observed data.
C: Deductive reasoning involves starting with a general principle and applying it to a specific situation to reach a specific conclusion. This is not the case here as the nurse started with specific symptoms and reached a general conclusion.
D: Conceptual reasoning involves using abstract concepts or ideas to analyze a situation. The nurse's reasoning was more based on concrete observations rather than abstract concepts.
RN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 15 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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