RN exams community health practice questions, set 25
RN exams · community health
RN exams community health practice questionsset 25
You think beyond the bed: populations, culture, and the referral that actually gets used. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five community health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A community health nurse is planning a program to reduce the incidence of heart disease in the community. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets
B. Organizing free cholesterol screenings
C. Holding workshops on stress management
D. Partnering with local gyms to offer fitness classes
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Organizing free cholesterol screenings
The correct answer is B: Organizing free cholesterol screenings. This intervention is crucial because it helps identify individuals at risk for heart disease by assessing their cholesterol levels. High cholesterol is a significant risk factor for heart disease, and identifying it early can lead to timely interventions and medical care. Choices A, C, and D, while beneficial for overall health, may not directly address the specific risk factor of high cholesterol associated with heart disease. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets (A) could be helpful in preventing heart disease, but identifying individuals already at risk is a more urgent need. Holding workshops on stress management (C) and partnering with local gyms for fitness classes (D) are important for overall health promotion but may not target the specific risk factor of high cholesterol as directly as organizing cholesterol screenings.
Question 2
In the emergency department, a patient’s vital signs are: blood pressure (BP), 66/40 mm Hg; pulse (P), 140 beats per minute (bpm); and respirations (R), 8 breaths per minute and shallow. The patient overdosed on illegally obtained hydromorphone (Dilaudid). Select the priority outcome.
A. Within 8 hours, vital signs will stabilize as evidenced by BP greater than 90/60 mm Hg, P less than 100 bpm, and respirations at or above 12 breaths per minute.
B. The patient will be able to describe a plan for home care and achieve a drug-free state before being released from the emergency department.
C. The patient will attend daily meetings of Narcotics Anonymous within 1 week of beginning treatment.
D. The patient will identify two community resources for the treatment of substance abuse by discharge.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Within 8 hours, vital signs will stabilize as evidenced by BP greater than 90/60 mm Hg, P less than 100 bpm, and respirations at or above 12 breaths per minute.
The correct answer is A because stabilizing the patient's vital signs is the top priority in this critical situation. A blood pressure of 66/40 mm Hg indicates severe hypotension, which can lead to organ failure. A pulse of 140 bpm and shallow respirations of 8 bpm indicate poor perfusion and respiratory distress. Achieving a BP greater than 90/60 mm Hg, P less than 100 bpm, and respirations at or above 12 bpm indicates improved perfusion and oxygenation, which are crucial for the patient's survival.
Option B is incorrect as achieving a drug-free state is not the immediate priority in an overdose situation. Option C is incorrect as attending Narcotics Anonymous meetings is important for long-term recovery but not the immediate priority. Option D is incorrect as identifying community resources for substance abuse treatment is important but not as critical as stabilizing the vital signs in an overdose situation.
Question 3
Which of the following was a significant public health achievement during the Progressive Era (1890–1920) in the United States?
A. The creation of the Social Security Act
B. The establishment of the CDC
C. The development of community health programs for child welfare
D. The founding of the World Health Organization
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The development of community health programs for child welfare
The correct answer is C because during the Progressive Era, significant efforts were made to address public health issues, particularly for child welfare. Community health programs focusing on child welfare were established to improve living conditions, nutrition, and overall well-being of children. This was a crucial public health achievement as it aimed to reduce infant mortality rates and improve the health outcomes of children.
A: The Social Security Act was not created during the Progressive Era; it was established in 1935 as part of the New Deal under President Franklin D. Roosevelt.
B: The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) was not established during the Progressive Era; it was founded in 1946 to address and prevent infectious diseases.
D: The World Health Organization (WHO) was founded in 1948, after the Progressive Era, to address global health issues and promote public health worldwide.
Question 4
The nurse-therapist is counseling the Smith family: Mr. and Mrs. Smith, 10-year-old Rob, and 8-year-old Lisa. When Mr. and Mrs. Smith start to argue, Rob hits Lisa and Lisa starts to cry. The Smiths then turn their attention to comforting Lisa and scolding Rob, complaining that he is 'out of control and we don’t know what to do about his behavior.' These dynamics are an example of which of the following?
A. Double-bind messages
B. Triangulation
C. Pseudohostility
D. Multigenerational transmission
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Triangulation
The correct answer is B: Triangulation. Triangulation occurs when a third party (in this case, the children) is brought into a conflict between two other parties (Mr. and Mrs. Smith). In this situation, the parents' argument has led to the children being drawn into the conflict, with Rob hitting Lisa. The parents then focus on the children, shifting attention away from their own issues. This behavior creates a dysfunctional dynamic within the family.
A: Double-bind messages refer to contradictory communication that causes confusion and emotional distress. This is not evident in the given scenario.
C: Pseudohostility involves expressing anger indirectly. While there may be some hostility in the family dynamics, it is not the primary issue at play.
D: Multigenerational transmission relates to the passing down of behaviors and beliefs through generations, which is not explicitly demonstrated in this scenario.
Question 5
Nurse Deric is supervising a group of elderly clients in a residential home setting. The nurse knows that the elderly are at greater risk of developing sensory deprivation for what reason?
A. Increased sensitivity to the side effects of medications.
B. Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory abilities.
C. Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings.
D. Decrease musculoskeletal function and mobility.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory abilities.
The correct answer is B: Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory abilities. Elderly individuals often experience sensory decline as they age, leading to decreased vision, hearing, and taste. This puts them at greater risk of sensory deprivation, as they may struggle to perceive and interact with their environment effectively.
A: Increased sensitivity to the side effects of medications - While elderly individuals may be more sensitive to medication side effects due to age-related changes in metabolism, this does not directly relate to sensory deprivation.
C: Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings - While social isolation can impact mental health, it does not directly cause sensory deprivation.
D: Decrease musculoskeletal function and mobility - While decreased mobility can lead to reduced sensory input, it is not the primary reason why the elderly are at greater risk of sensory deprivation.
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Question 6
The nurse is conducting a family assessment. When asked about her children's performance at school, the single mother reported that her oldest, a 10-year-old, 'does OK with schoolwork but doesn't have any interest in being friends with the kids in her school.' To further investigate this situation the nurse asks the:
A. Child why she doesn't have friends at school.
B. Mother if her younger children have friends at school.
C. Child what she does at home after she comes home from school.
D. Mother to discuss the situation with the child's teacher or school counselor.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because asking the child what she does at home after school can provide insights into her social interactions, interests, and possible reasons for not having friends at school. This approach allows the nurse to understand the child's daily routine, activities, and possible areas for intervention or support.
A: Asking the child directly why she doesn't have friends may not yield accurate information as the child may not be able to articulate her feelings or may not be comfortable discussing the issue openly.
B: Inquiring about the younger children's friendships is not relevant to understanding the oldest child's situation and may not provide meaningful insights.
D: Involving the teacher or counselor without understanding the child's perspective first may not address the underlying reasons for her lack of friends and may not be the most appropriate initial step in the assessment process.
When preparing Judy with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for discharge to the home, the nurse should be sure to include which instruction?
A. "Put on disposable gloves before bathing."
B. "Sterilize all plates and utensils in boiling water."
C. "Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors."
D. "Avoid eating foods from serving dishes shared by other family members."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. When a patient has AIDS, it is crucial to avoid sharing personal items like toothbrushes and razors to prevent the transmission of infections. This is because these items can potentially transfer blood or bodily fluids, increasing the risk of spreading infections or diseases. By instructing the patient to avoid sharing such articles, the nurse is promoting infection control and protecting both the patient and others from potential harm.
Choice A is incorrect because wearing disposable gloves before bathing is unnecessary unless there are open wounds or skin lesions that need to be protected. Choice B is incorrect as sterilizing plates and utensils in boiling water is not a necessary precaution for someone with AIDS. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating foods from shared serving dishes is not as critical as avoiding sharing personal items that have direct contact with bodily fluids.
The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever?
A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas
D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes. This is the most effective strategy in controlling Dengue fever because it targets the source of the problem by eliminating the breeding grounds of mosquitoes, which are essential for their reproduction. By removing stagnant water and other potential breeding sites, the mosquito population is significantly reduced, thus lowering the risk of Dengue fever transmission.
Choice A, stream seeding with larva-eating fish, may help in controlling mosquito larvae in certain water bodies but may not be as effective in widespread control of Dengue fever transmission. Choice C, chemoprophylaxis, is not a primary prevention strategy and may not be practical for large populations. Choice D, teaching people to use mosquito nets, is a helpful preventive measure but may not be as effective as eliminating breeding sites in reducing Dengue fever transmission.
A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection? COMMUNITY HEALTH PRACTICE EXAM - VERSION A
A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners. This individual is at highest risk for contracting HIV due to engaging in unprotected sex with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Adolescents are a high-risk group due to factors like peer pressure, lack of awareness, and inconsistent condom use.
Summary of other choices:
B: A 45-year-old lesbian with two partners in the past year - Lesbian sexual activity has a lower risk of HIV transmission compared to heterosexual or male homosexual activity.
C: A 30-year-old cocaine user who works in a topless bar - Cocaine use and working in a topless bar do not directly increase the risk of HIV transmission.
D: A 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship - Being in a monogamous relationship reduces the risk of contracting HIV compared to individuals with multiple sexual partners.
Which major public health law passed in 1970 established the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) in the United States?
A. The Clean Air Act
B. The National Environmental Policy Act
C. The Environmental Protection Agency Act
D. The Toxic Substances Control Act
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: The Environmental Protection Agency Act. This law, passed in 1970, specifically established the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) in the United States. The EPA was created to protect human health and the environment by enforcing regulations related to pollution control, environmental assessments, and more.
Explanation:
1. The Clean Air Act (A) focuses on air pollution control and was passed in 1970 as well, but it did not establish the EPA.
2. The National Environmental Policy Act (B) requires federal agencies to consider environmental impacts in decision-making but did not establish the EPA.
3. The Toxic Substances Control Act (D) regulates chemicals but was passed in 1976 and did not establish the EPA.
In summary, the correct answer is C because it directly established the EPA in 1970, while the other choices are focused on different aspects of environmental regulation.
What differentiates the Psychiatric-Mental Health Registered Nurse (RN-PMH) from the Psychiatric-Mental Health Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN-PMH)?
A. Only the APRN-PMH is responsible for milieu management.
B. The APRN-PMH exercises a greater degree of autonomy when providing care.
C. Only the RN-PMH provides medication education to the client.
D. The RN-PMH has less experience working with the mentally ill.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: The APRN-PMH exercises a greater degree of autonomy when providing care. This is because an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN-PMH) has advanced education and training, allowing them to diagnose, prescribe medications, and provide comprehensive psychiatric care independently. This higher level of autonomy distinguishes them from Registered Nurses (RN-PMH) who work under the supervision of APRNs or physicians.
Incorrect choices:
A: Only the APRN-PMH is responsible for milieu management - Incorrect, as RN-PMH can also be responsible for milieu management in psychiatric settings.
C: Only the RN-PMH provides medication education to the client - Incorrect, as APRN-PMH can also provide medication education.
D: The RN-PMH has less experience working with the mentally ill - Incorrect, as experience levels can vary among individuals regardless of their title as RN-PMH or APRN-PMH.
Which statement made by a nurse who manages care for a number of culturally diverse Hispanic clients demonstrates an understanding of the challenges this assignment presents?
A. I find the Hispanic language very difficult to master.'
B. There are many differences between Hispanic subcultures.'
C. Addressing the Hispanic culture's religious needs can be challenging.'
D. I find Hispanic children to be very dependent upon their elders.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: "There are many differences between Hispanic subcultures." This answer demonstrates an understanding of the complexity and diversity within the Hispanic community, emphasizing that there is not a monolithic Hispanic culture but rather various subcultures with distinct customs, traditions, and beliefs. Understanding these differences is crucial for providing culturally competent care.
Rationale:
1. Option A focuses on language proficiency, not cultural diversity.
2. Option C mentions religious needs but does not address the broader complexity of Hispanic culture.
3. Option D makes a generalization about Hispanic children, not addressing the diversity within Hispanic communities.
In summary, the correct answer acknowledges and respects the diverse nature of Hispanic subcultures, highlighting the importance of recognizing and understanding these differences to provide effective care.
A community health nurse (CHN) is orienting a new recruit to a health clinic that primarily serves structurally vulnerable populations. Which statement by the CHN indicates a need for additional information?
A. "If a client who does not speak English comes in, you must obtain an interpreter right away."
B. "We try to take care of as many problems as possible in one visit, so when you check the client in, ask about additional concerns."
C. "You will like working with Filipino immigrants because they have close-knit family structures."
D. "You will need to assist the client by scheduling any referral or follow-up appointments."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it makes a generalization about Filipino immigrants without providing any specific information or guidance on how to effectively work with them. It is important for the CHN to understand that each individual within any cultural group is unique and may not necessarily fit into stereotypes. Providing additional information on cultural competence and how to work effectively with diverse populations would be more beneficial.
Choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of obtaining an interpreter for clients who do not speak English to ensure effective communication. Choice B is correct as it emphasizes the importance of addressing all client concerns during a single visit to maximize efficiency and client satisfaction. Choice D is correct as it highlights the importance of assisting clients with scheduling referrals and follow-up appointments to ensure continuity of care.
The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever?
A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas
D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes. This is the most effective strategy in controlling Dengue fever because it targets the source of the problem by eliminating the breeding grounds of mosquitoes, which are essential for their reproduction. By removing stagnant water and other potential breeding sites, the mosquito population is significantly reduced, thus lowering the risk of Dengue fever transmission.
Choice A, stream seeding with larva-eating fish, may help in controlling mosquito larvae in certain water bodies but may not be as effective in widespread control of Dengue fever transmission. Choice C, chemoprophylaxis, is not a primary prevention strategy and may not be practical for large populations. Choice D, teaching people to use mosquito nets, is a helpful preventive measure but may not be as effective as eliminating breeding sites in reducing Dengue fever transmission.
The nurse-therapist is counseling the Smith family: Mr. and Mrs. Smith, 10-year-old Rob, and 8-year-old Lisa. When Mr. and Mrs. Smith start to argue, Rob hits Lisa and Lisa starts to cry. The Smiths then turn their attention to comforting Lisa and scolding Rob, complaining that he is 'out of control and we don’t know what to do about his behavior.' These dynamics are an example of which of the following?
A. Double-bind messages
B. Triangulation
C. Pseudohostility
D. Multigenerational transmission
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Triangulation. Triangulation occurs when a third party (in this case, the children) is brought into a conflict between two other parties (Mr. and Mrs. Smith). In this situation, the parents' argument has led to the children being drawn into the conflict, with Rob hitting Lisa. The parents then focus on the children, shifting attention away from their own issues. This behavior creates a dysfunctional dynamic within the family.
A: Double-bind messages refer to contradictory communication that causes confusion and emotional distress. This is not evident in the given scenario.
C: Pseudohostility involves expressing anger indirectly. While there may be some hostility in the family dynamics, it is not the primary issue at play.
D: Multigenerational transmission relates to the passing down of behaviors and beliefs through generations, which is not explicitly demonstrated in this scenario.
RN exams community health practice questions, set 25 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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