RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 59
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 59
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
How can a nurse reduce the risk of infection in a newborn in the NICU?
A. Maintain strict hand hygiene
B. Limit visitors and monitor closely for signs of infection
C. Ensure proper sterilization of equipment
D. Administer prophylactic antibiotics
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Limit visitors and monitor closely for signs of infection
Rationale for Correct Answer (B): Limiting visitors and monitoring closely for signs of infection in a newborn in the NICU is crucial because newborns are highly vulnerable to infections. By restricting visitors, the risk of introducing pathogens is reduced. Close monitoring allows for early detection of any signs of infection, enabling prompt intervention to prevent complications.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: While maintaining strict hand hygiene is important, it alone is not sufficient to reduce the risk of infection in a newborn in the NICU.
C: Proper sterilization of equipment is essential but may not directly address the risk of infection transmission from visitors or other sources.
D: Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not recommended as a routine measure due to the potential for antibiotic resistance and adverse effects in newborns. Monitoring and prevention are preferred over indiscriminate antibiotic use.
Question 2
Which of the following is true of Transmission-Based Precautions?
A. An NA does not need to practice Standard Precautions if he practices Transmission-Based Precautions.
B. They are exactly the same as Standard Precautions.
C. They are practiced in addition to Standard Precautions.
D. They will not be listed in the care plan so as not to alarm anyone.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — They are practiced in addition to Standard Precautions.
The correct answer is C because Transmission-Based Precautions are used in addition to Standard Precautions for patients with known or suspected infections. Step 1: Standard Precautions are the basic level of infection control practices that should be applied to all patients. Step 2: Transmission-Based Precautions are additional precautions used for patients with specific infectious conditions to prevent the spread of pathogens. Step 3: Therefore, practicing Transmission-Based Precautions alongside Standard Precautions ensures proper infection control measures are taken for patients with infectious diseases. Choices A and B are incorrect because Standard Precautions apply to all patients, and Transmission-Based Precautions are not the same as Standard Precautions. Choice D is incorrect because listing Transmission-Based Precautions in the care plan is essential for ensuring proper infection control practices are followed.
Question 3
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a beating heart bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that
A. There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D. The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
The correct answer is A: There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications.
Rationale:
1. Off-pump bypass grafting involves performing surgery on a beating heart without the use of a heart-lung machine.
2. The lack of cardiopulmonary bypass during off-pump surgery can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, increasing the risk of neurologic complications.
3. This is why the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson about the slightly higher risk of neurologic complications associated with off-pump bypass.
4. Choice B is incorrect as long-term results actually suggest similar or better patency rates for grafts in off-pump surgery.
5. Choice C is incorrect as the statement about the incidence increasing significantly in the last 10 years is not relevant to the risks of off-pump surgery.
6. Choice D is incorrect as off-pump surgery is not considerably more expensive and the correlation with better long-term outcomes is debatable.
Question 4
Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as appropriate when working with a client diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder?
A. Altered thought processes related to (R/T) increased stress
B. Risk for suicide R/T loneliness
C. Risk for violence: directed toward others R/T paranoid thinking
D. Social isolation R/T inability to relate to others
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Social isolation R/T inability to relate to others
The correct answer is D: Social isolation R/T inability to relate to others. This is because individuals with schizoid personality disorder often have difficulty forming and maintaining relationships, leading to social isolation. This nursing diagnosis directly addresses the primary issue of the disorder.
A: Altered thought processes related to (R/T) increased stress is incorrect because schizoid personality disorder is not typically associated with altered thought processes in the same way as other psychotic disorders.
B: Risk for suicide R/T loneliness is incorrect because while individuals with schizoid personality disorder may experience loneliness, it is not necessarily linked to an increased risk for suicide.
C: Risk for violence: directed toward others R/T paranoid thinking is incorrect as schizoid personality disorder is not typically characterized by violent behavior or paranoid thinking towards others.
Question 5
A 45-year old female diabetic is displaying signs of irritability and irrational behavior during an office visit. The nurse observes visible tremors in the client’s hands. based on the client’s history and the nurse’s understanding of diabetes mellitus, the nurse interprets these findings to be signs of:
A. hyperglycemia
B. hyperglycemic hyperosmolar
C. diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) nonketosis (HHNK)
D. hypoglycemia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — hypoglycemia
The correct answer is D: hypoglycemia. In a diabetic patient, signs of irritability, irrational behavior, and visible tremors in the hands indicate low blood sugar levels, which is hypoglycemia. This is because the brain relies on glucose for energy, and when blood sugar levels drop too low, it can lead to neuroglycopenic symptoms such as confusion and tremors.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: hyperglycemia - High blood sugar levels typically present with symptoms such as frequent urination, increased thirst, and fatigue, not irritability and tremors.
B: hyperglycemic hyperosmolar - This condition is characterized by extremely high blood sugar levels and severe dehydration, leading to symptoms such as extreme thirst and confusion, not irritability and tremors.
C: diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) nonketosis (HHNK) - These conditions are associated with high blood sugar levels and metabolic disturbances,
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Question 6
The nurse uses the Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation (SBAR) format to communicate a change in patient status to a healthcare provider. In which order should the nurse make the following statements?
A. The patient needs to be evaluated immediately and may need intubation and mechanical ventilation.
B. The patient was admitted yesterday with heart failure and has been receiving furosemide (Lasix) for diuresis, but urine output has been low.
C. The patient has crackles audible throughout the posterior chest and the most recent oxygen saturation is 89%. Her condition is very unstable.
D. This is the nurse on the surgical unit. After assessing the patient, I am very concerned about increased shortness of breath over the past hour.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Start with Background - statement B provides relevant background information about the patient's current condition and why there is a need for communication.
Step 2: Move on to Situation - statement D sets the current situation where the nurse expresses concern about the patient's symptom.
Step 3: Next is Assessment - statement C details the nurse's assessment findings, highlighting the critical aspects of the patient's condition.
Step 4: End with Recommendation - statement A suggests the necessary action to be taken based on the assessment findings. This order ensures a clear and structured communication process.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as the recommendation should come after providing background, situation, and assessment.
- Choice C is incorrect as assessment details should precede the patient's critical condition.
- Choice D is incorrect as the situation should be explained before expressing concern.
A 72-year-old patient has a history of hypertension and chronic lung disease. An important question for the nurse to include in history-taking would be:
A. "Do you use a fluoride supplement?"
B. "Have you had tonsillitis in the last year?"
C. "At what age did you get your first tooth?"
D. "Have you noticed any dryness in your mouth?"
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: "Have you noticed any dryness in your mouth?" This question is important as dryness in the mouth can be a side effect of certain medications used to manage hypertension and chronic lung disease. Dry mouth can lead to oral health issues and impact the patient's overall well-being.
A: "Do you use a fluoride supplement?" is not directly relevant to the patient's medical history of hypertension and lung disease.
B: "Have you had tonsillitis in the last year?" is not as crucial as dry mouth in relation to managing hypertension and lung disease.
C: "At what age did you get your first tooth?" is not pertinent to the current medical conditions and management of hypertension and lung disease.
In summary, the question about dryness in the mouth is the most relevant as it pertains to potential medication side effects and oral health implications for the patient with hypertension and chronic lung disease.
A nurse is meeting with a new client at a substance use disorder clinic. During the meeting, the client states that they have been using cocaine at least once daily for the past 6 months. The nurse is collecting which of the following types of data from the client's account?
A. Subjective
B. Secondary
C. Historical
D. Objective
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Subjective. Subjective data is information provided by the client, based on their personal experiences and feelings. In this scenario, the client's statement about using cocaine daily is their personal account, making it subjective data. The nurse is gathering this information directly from the client's perspective.
Summary:
B: Secondary data refers to information collected from sources other than the client, such as medical records or research studies.
C: Historical data pertains to past events and may include information about the client's substance use history, but it does not capture the client's current experiences as directly as subjective data.
D: Objective data is measurable and observable, typically collected through physical assessments or laboratory tests. In this case, the client's statement about cocaine use is not objective data as it is based on their personal account.
A patient tells you about her experience with prolonged therapy for her breast cancer. You comment, "That must have been a very trying time for you." What is this an example of?
A. Reassurance
B. Empathy
C. Summarization
D. Validation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Empathy. By acknowledging the patient's emotional experience and showing understanding of her feelings, the response demonstrates empathy. This response validates the patient's emotions and fosters a sense of connection and understanding.
Choice A: Reassurance implies providing comfort or support, but in this scenario, the focus is on acknowledging the patient's feelings rather than providing reassurance.
Choice C: Summarization involves restating key points or information, which is not demonstrated in the given scenario where the focus is on acknowledging the patient's emotional experience.
Choice D: Validation involves recognizing and affirming the patient's emotions as legitimate, which aligns closely with empathy. However, in this specific scenario, the response does not explicitly confirm the validity of the patient's emotions, making it less appropriate than the answer choice of empathy.
The nurse explains that the therapeutic nurse-patient relationship differs from the social relationship because:
A. a social relationship does not have goals or needs to be met.
B. the nurse-patient relationship ends when the patient is discharged.
C. the focus is mainly on the nurse in the nurse-patient relationship.
D. a social relationship does not require trust or sharing of life experiences. The nurse-patient relationship is limited to the patient's stay in the facility and is focused on the patient. A social relationship may have goals or needs and does require trust and sharing of life experiences.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because in a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship, the focus is mainly on the nurse being therapeutically beneficial to the patient. This relationship is professional, goal-oriented, and centered on the patient's needs and well-being. The nurse's primary role is to provide care, support, and help the patient achieve their health goals. Unlike a social relationship, where the focus is mutual and not solely on the nurse, the therapeutic relationship is asymmetrical, with the nurse taking on a more authoritative and guiding role. This ensures that the patient receives the necessary care and support during their healthcare journey.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a social relationship can have goals or needs to be met, the nurse-patient relationship extends beyond the patient's discharge, and trust and sharing of life experiences are essential components of the nurse-patient relationship.
A new graduate nurse is preparing for an interview for her first position and knows that: (select all that apply)
A. the primary goal for the first job is to complete orientation and should be considered as an extension of nursing school.
B. appointments for interviews should be scheduled immediately after graduation to avoid rushing into a position.
C. self-confidence can be improved with self-talk, which reminds the graduate that peers from her school are effective practitioners.
D. work history of even nonmedical positions can demonstrate commitment and reliability so letters from these employers should be in portfolio.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because the primary goal for a new graduate nurse in their first job is to successfully complete the orientation process. This is crucial for transitioning from the academic setting to the professional nursing environment. Completing orientation ensures that the nurse is equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to provide safe and effective patient care.
Choice B is incorrect because scheduling interviews immediately after graduation may not allow the nurse enough time to prepare adequately for the interview process.
Choice C is incorrect because while self-confidence is important, relying solely on past achievements of peers may not be a sustainable source of confidence in a new work environment.
Choice D is incorrect because while work history and letters of recommendation can be valuable, they may not necessarily be the primary focus during the initial stages of a new nurse's career.
A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator. This is the appropriate action for a college student with symptoms of a vaginal infection with a 'cottage cheese' appearance discharge, which is indicative of a yeast infection (most likely caused by Candida). Nystatin is an antifungal medication effective against Candida, hence addressing the root cause of the infection. It is essential to start with the treatment first to alleviate the symptoms and prevent further complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may provide some comfort but does not address the underlying infection.
C: Performing a glucose measurement is not necessary at this stage as the symptoms suggest a yeast infection, not diabetes.
D: Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this case as the symptoms are indicative of a yeast infection, not an STD.
Which of the following is true of Transmission-Based Precautions?
A. An NA does not need to practice Standard Precautions if he practices Transmission-Based Precautions.
B. They are exactly the same as Standard Precautions.
C. They are practiced in addition to Standard Precautions.
D. They will not be listed in the care plan so as not to alarm anyone.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because Transmission-Based Precautions are used in addition to Standard Precautions for patients with known or suspected infections. Step 1: Standard Precautions are the basic level of infection control practices that should be applied to all patients. Step 2: Transmission-Based Precautions are additional precautions used for patients with specific infectious conditions to prevent the spread of pathogens. Step 3: Therefore, practicing Transmission-Based Precautions alongside Standard Precautions ensures proper infection control measures are taken for patients with infectious diseases. Choices A and B are incorrect because Standard Precautions apply to all patients, and Transmission-Based Precautions are not the same as Standard Precautions. Choice D is incorrect because listing Transmission-Based Precautions in the care plan is essential for ensuring proper infection control practices are followed.
A pregnant patient is at 28 weeks gestation and reports occasional headaches and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Monitor the patient's blood pressure and check for signs of preeclampsia.
B. Administer pain relief and encourage the patient to rest.
C. Assess the patient's vision and schedule an appointment with an eye specialist.
D. Encourage the patient to drink fluids and avoid strenuous activity.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Monitor the patient's blood pressure and check for signs of preeclampsia.
1. Headaches and blurred vision are common symptoms of preeclampsia.
2. Preeclampsia is a serious condition that can lead to complications for both the mother and baby.
3. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial in diagnosing preeclampsia and determining the appropriate course of action.
4. Prompt assessment and management of preeclampsia are essential to prevent further complications.
Incorrect choices:
B: Administering pain relief and encouraging rest does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which could be preeclampsia.
C: Assessing vision and scheduling an appointment with an eye specialist does not address the urgent need to assess for preeclampsia.
D: Encouraging fluid intake and avoiding strenuous activity may be helpful in general, but they do not address the potential seriousness of preeclampsia in this
Which nursing statement explains how methylphenidate works when teaching parents about this medication?
A. "Methylphenidate's sedation side effect assists children by decreasing their energy level."
B. "How methylphenidate works is unknown. Although it is a stimulant, it does combat the symptoms of ADHD."
C. "Methylphenidate helps the child focus by decreasing the amount of dopamine in the basal ganglia and neuron synapses."
D. "Methylphenidate decreases hyperactivity by increasing serotonin levels."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. Methylphenidate is a stimulant that works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, specifically dopamine and norepinephrine. It helps improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. While the exact mechanism of how it works is not fully understood, research suggests that it enhances the activity of these neurotransmitters in the brain.
Choice A is incorrect because methylphenidate is not a sedative and does not decrease energy levels.
Choice C is incorrect because methylphenidate works by increasing, not decreasing, the levels of dopamine in the brain.
Choice D is incorrect because methylphenidate primarily affects dopamine and norepinephrine levels, not serotonin levels.
In summary, choice B is the correct answer as it accurately describes the general understanding of how methylphenidate works as a stimulant to alleviate symptoms of ADHD.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 59 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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