RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 58
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 58
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A staff nurse reports an observation of a coworker injecting themselves with a syringe in the bathroom. The coworker admits to stealing narcotics from the medication room. The staff nurse should take which of the following courses of action?
A. Agree to not report the incident if the coworker promises to report themselves to the supervisor.
B. Report the incident to the appropriate person in the chain of command right away.
C. Report the incident to the other RNs on the shift.
D. Agree to not report the incident if the coworker seeks treatment.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Report the incident to the appropriate person in the chain of command right away.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Reporting the incident to the appropriate person in the chain of command is necessary to ensure patient safety and uphold professional ethics.
2. The coworker's actions pose a serious risk to patient care and safety, and immediate action is required.
3. Reporting to the supervisor allows for proper investigation, intervention, and support for the coworker.
4. Confidentiality and professionalism are maintained by following the appropriate reporting channels.
Summary:
A: Agreeing not to report the incident in exchange for the coworker self-reporting is not appropriate as it compromises patient safety and enables unethical behavior.
C: Reporting to other RNs on the shift may not ensure proper action and escalation of the issue to the appropriate authority.
D: Delaying reporting in exchange for the coworker seeking treatment does not address the immediate risk posed by their actions.
Question 2
A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
D. Serum pH of 7.30
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) as it indicates severe dehydration and hypertonicity. This high serum osmolarity level can lead to neurological complications and requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. Serum glucose levels, blood pressure, and serum pH are important parameters to monitor in HHS, but a significantly elevated serum osmolarity poses a higher risk of complications and warrants urgent attention. High serum glucose levels, like 500 mg/dL, are expected in HHS but do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is within normal limits and may not be directly related to the acute complications of HHS. A serum pH of 7.30 suggests acidosis, which is important to address but may not be as immediately concerning as severe dehydration indicated by high serum osmolarity.
Question 3
A consumptive patient has an open pulmonary form of disease. Choose what sputum staining should be selected for finding out the tubercle (Koch's) bacillus?
A. Method of Ziel-Neelsen
B. Method of Romanowsky-Giemsa
C. Method of Gram
D. Method of Neisser
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Method of Ziel-Neelsen
The correct answer is A. Method of Ziel-Neelsen. This method uses a special stain (carbol fuchsin) to detect acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis. The staining procedure involves heating the slide to help penetrate the mycolic acid layer of the bacteria, making them resistant to decolorization by acid-alcohol. The red stained acid-fast bacilli stand out against the blue counterstain. This method is specific for identifying tubercle bacilli in sputum samples.
Choice B: Method of Romanowsky-Giemsa is used for staining blood smears and is not suitable for detecting acid-fast bacilli in sputum.
Choice C: Method of Gram is used for staining bacteria based on their cell wall composition and is not effective for identifying acid-fast bacilli like Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Choice D: Method of Neisser is not a specific staining method for acid-fast bacilli and is not suitable
Question 4
A history reveals that a patient virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. The nurse says, "Describe what you think about your present weight and how you look." Which response would be most consistent with anorexia nervosa?
A. "I'm fat and ugly."
B. "What I think about myself is my business."
C. "I'm grossly underweight, but I cover it well."
D. "I'm a few pounds overweight, but I can live with it."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "I'm fat and ugly."
The correct answer is A because the response indicates a distorted body image, a common characteristic of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of body image, leading individuals to see themselves as overweight despite being underweight. In this case, the patient's response of "I'm fat and ugly" demonstrates a negative perception of their weight and appearance, which aligns with the distorted body image seen in anorexia nervosa.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: "What I think about myself is my business" - This response does not indicate a distorted body image or negative perception of weight and appearance, which are key features of anorexia nervosa.
C: "I'm grossly underweight, but I cover it well" - While this response acknowledges being underweight, it does not reflect the distorted body image commonly seen in anorexia nervosa.
D: "I'm a
Question 5
Which of the following is a guideline for dealing with urinary incontinence?
A. The nursing assistant should let roommates know when residents have been incontinent so that they can help notify the care team when incontinence occurs.
B. The nursing assistant should tell residents' families about episodes of incontinence so they can encourage residents to do better.
C. The nursing assistant should change wet or soiled linens or incontinence briefs immediately.
D. The nursing assistant should not offer fluids because this will help lessen episodes of incontinence.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The nursing assistant should change wet or soiled linens or incontinence briefs immediately.
The correct answer is C because changing wet or soiled linens or incontinence briefs immediately is a crucial guideline for managing urinary incontinence. By promptly changing soiled linens and briefs, the nursing assistant helps maintain the resident's skin integrity, prevents skin breakdown, and promotes comfort and hygiene. This action also reduces the risk of infections and eliminates odors, contributing to the resident's overall well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because privacy and confidentiality are essential in managing incontinence, and sharing this information with roommates is inappropriate. Choice B is incorrect because involving residents' families in managing incontinence should be done with the resident's consent and in a supportive, sensitive manner. Choice D is incorrect because proper hydration is important for overall health, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration and other health complications.
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Question 6
While reviewing the head CT scan of a patient following a motor vehicle accident, the AGACNP appreciates a crescent-shaped fluid collection. This most likely represents
A. Acute subdural hematoma
B. Acute epidural hematoma
C. Acute uncal herniation
D. Acute brainstem compression
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Acute epidural hematoma. A crescent-shaped fluid collection seen on a head CT scan following trauma is indicative of an epidural hematoma, which typically occurs due to an arterial bleed between the dura mater and the skull. This collection appears biconvex due to the restriction of the hematoma by the dura mater and is often associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration.
Explanation for Incorrect Choices:
A: Acute subdural hematoma typically presents as a crescent-shaped collection but is located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater, not between the dura mater and skull as seen in epidural hematomas.
C: Acute uncal herniation involves displacement of the uncus of the temporal lobe, leading to compression of the brainstem, but it does not manifest as a crescent-shaped fluid collection.
D: Acute brainstem compression does not typically present as a distinct crescent-shaped
A 47 year old house painter is brought to the hospital after falling 6 meters from a ladder and landing straddled on a fence. Examination of his perineum reveals extensive ecchymosis. There is blood in the external urethral meatus. The initial diagnostic study for evaluation of the urinary tract in this patient should be:
A. "Cystoscopy"
B. "Cystography"
C. "IV pyelography"
D. "Retrograde urethrography"
Correct answer:
The correct initial diagnostic study for evaluating the urinary tract in this patient is "Retrograde urethrography" (Choice D).
Rationale:
1. Retrograde urethrography is the appropriate choice because the patient has blood in the external urethral meatus, indicating a possible urethral injury.
2. This imaging technique involves injecting contrast material into the urethra to visualize any urethral abnormalities or injuries.
3. It is a non-invasive and effective method to assess the extent of urethral trauma in cases like this.
4. Cystoscopy (Choice A) is not the initial study of choice in this scenario as it primarily visualizes the bladder and may not provide adequate information about urethral injuries.
5. Cystography (Choice B) and IV pyelography (Choice C) are not appropriate in this case as they focus on assessing the bladder and kidneys, respectively, which are not the primary concerns based on the patient's
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) support group.
One of the teaching points will include diet and weight loss to decrease hirsutism and acne. What
is the reasoning for this rationale?
A. Diet and exercise will promote weight loss, which will decrease
hyperandrogenemia
B. Diet and exercise will decrease the risk of type 2 diabetes and gestational diabetes
C. Diet and exercise will decrease serum lipid levels and lower the risk for
cardiovascular disease.
D. Diet and exercise will increase the frequency of ovulation and menstruation and
increase fertility.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is missing from the choices provided. However, I can provide a rationale for each choice:
A: Diet and exercise can help promote weight loss, which can decrease hyperandrogenemia by reducing insulin resistance and decreasing androgen levels.
B: While diet and exercise can decrease the risk of type 2 diabetes and gestational diabetes in women with PCOS, this is not directly related to reducing hirsutism and acne symptoms.
C: Diet and exercise can improve lipid levels and reduce cardiovascular risk in women with PCOS, but this is not the primary goal when addressing hirsutism and acne.
D: Diet and exercise can improve ovulation and menstrual regularity, which may help with fertility in women with PCOS, but this is not directly related to reducing hirsutism and acne.
In summary, the correct answer should focus on how diet and weight loss can specifically impact hirsutism and acne in women with PCOS.
A hospital nurse is concerned about the demands of providing safe care to clients who are seriously ill. The nurse manager should suggest which intervention to effectively help the nurse balance the demanding work in the hospital setting?
A. Delegate more tasks to the unlicensed nursing personnel on the unit.
B. Request a transfer to another nursing care unit with patients who are stable.
C. Write down stories in a journal about how caring makes a difference for patients.
D. Use an assertive communication style for every patient3nurse interaction.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Request a transfer to another nursing care unit with patients who are stable.
Rationale:
1. By transferring to a unit with stable patients, the nurse can reduce the demands of caring for seriously ill clients.
2. This intervention helps in balancing the workload and provides a less stressful environment for the nurse.
3. It allows the nurse to focus on providing safe care without being overwhelmed by the demands of seriously ill patients.
Incorrect choices:
A: Delegating more tasks to unlicensed nursing personnel may not address the root cause of the nurse's concern and could potentially compromise patient safety.
C: Writing stories in a journal may be a helpful coping mechanism but does not directly address the nurse's workload concerns.
D: Using an assertive communication style is important but may not be the most effective solution for balancing the demands of caring for seriously ill clients.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?
A. Potassium
B. Serum creatinine
C. Sodium
D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: The healthcare professional should review serum creatinine levels before administering metformin to assess kidney function. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and checking serum creatinine helps prevent lactic acidosis, a potential side effect in individuals with impaired renal function.
Choice A: Potassium levels are not directly related to the administration of metformin. While monitoring potassium levels is important for some medications, it is not the priority when initiating metformin.
Choice C: Sodium levels are not typically assessed specifically before starting metformin. It is not a routine lab test required prior to metformin administration.
Choice D: Hemoglobin A1C reflects long-term blood sugar control and is not a lab test that needs to be reviewed before initiating metformin. It is used to monitor diabetes management over time, not for immediate medication administration considerations.
There are 2 hours left before the shift ends. The new UAP tells the team leader that she must leave now because she has a family emergency. What should the team leader do? Select all that apply.
A. Ask her what tasks and duties are pending for the next 2 hours.
B. Call a UAP who is scheduled for the next shift to come early.
C. Allow her to leave but remind her she is still on probation as a new staff member.
D. Call another unit and see if there is a UAP who could float to the unit.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. The team leader should ask the UAP what tasks and duties are pending for the next 2 hours to assess the workload and determine if it's possible for the UAP to leave immediately. By understanding the pending tasks, the team leader can make an informed decision on whether the UAP leaving will impact patient care or workload. This approach ensures that patient care is not compromised and that the team's responsibilities are managed effectively.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the immediate situation of the UAP needing to leave due to a family emergency. Calling another UAP, reminding the UAP of probation status, or seeking assistance from another unit may not be necessary or relevant if the tasks can be managed effectively without the UAP who needs to leave. These options do not prioritize understanding the pending tasks and duties to make an informed decision.
The nurse is providing care to a patient who was admitted with heart failure. The patient has not been following the prescribed diet or taking the prescribed medications. Which type of communication approach is most important for the nurse to use with this patient to facilitate a change in self-care behavior?
A. Authoritative, honest, and outright communication
B. Assertive, responsible, and caring communication
C. Aggressive, sympathetic, and realistic communication
D. Positive, expert, and focused communication
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Assertive, responsible, and caring communication. This approach is effective because it involves setting clear boundaries (assertive), taking ownership of the situation (responsible), and showing empathy and support (caring). By being assertive, the nurse can communicate expectations clearly. Being responsible conveys accountability and encourages the patient to take ownership of their health. The caring aspect fosters a supportive environment, making the patient feel understood and motivated to change.
Choice A (Authoritative, honest, and outright communication) may come off as too forceful and may not promote cooperation. Choice C (Aggressive, sympathetic, and realistic communication) is contradictory - being aggressive does not align with being sympathetic. Choice D (Positive, expert, and focused communication) lacks the element of assertiveness needed to set clear boundaries and expectations.
A director of nursing (DON) asks the staff to list how their nursing unit can help the organization meet its goal to "provide quality patient care with attention to compassion and excellence." An ad hoc committee is formed to develop a timeline of identified actions. The DON coaches the committee to reach desired outcomes. This DON is demonstrating which other role of leadership and management?
A. Transactional
B. Clinical consultant
C. Corporate supporter
D. Autocratic
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Clinical consultant. In this scenario, the DON is providing guidance and expertise to the ad hoc committee in developing strategies to meet the organization's goal of providing quality patient care. As a clinical consultant, the DON utilizes their clinical knowledge and experience to coach and support the committee in achieving desired outcomes related to patient care. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Transactional leadership focuses on exchanging rewards for performance and does not align with the DON's role in providing clinical guidance.
C: Corporate supporter role involves advocating for organizational goals at a higher level and is not directly related to coaching a committee on clinical matters.
D: Autocratic leadership style is characterized by making decisions without input from others, which is not demonstrated in the scenario where the DON is coaching and guiding the committee.
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
A. Rapid reversal of symptoms, with good pituitary function
B. Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones
C. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test
D. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization.
Rationale:
1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery.
2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize.
3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of
A nurse is caring for a pregnant patient at 34 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with gestational hypertension. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. Encourage the patient to rest and increase fluid intake.
B. Monitor the patient's blood pressure regularly and assess for signs of preeclampsia.
C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
D. Instruct the patient to lie on her back to relieve pressure on the uterus.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Monitor the patient's blood pressure regularly and assess for signs of preeclampsia. At 34 weeks gestation with gestational hypertension, monitoring blood pressure and assessing for signs of preeclampsia are crucial to detect any worsening condition. Preeclampsia is a serious complication of gestational hypertension that can lead to adverse outcomes for both the mother and fetus. Regular monitoring allows for timely intervention if necessary.
Choice A is incorrect because simply encouraging rest and increased fluid intake may not address the potential severity of gestational hypertension and preeclampsia.
Choice C is incorrect because administering antihypertensive medications without proper monitoring and assessment can be harmful to the patient and fetus.
Choice D is incorrect because lying on her back can actually worsen the patient's condition by decreasing blood flow to the uterus.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 58 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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