RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 43
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 43
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What is the focus of the synergy model of practice?
A. Allowing unrestricted visiting for the patient 24 hours aebaircbh.c odma/tye.s t
B. Providing holistic and alternative therapies.
C. Considering the needs of patients and their families, w hich drives nursing competency.
D. Addressing the patients’ needs for energy and support.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Considering the needs of patients and their families, w hich drives nursing competency.
The correct answer is C because the synergy model of practice emphasizes considering the needs of patients and their families, which in turn drives nursing competency. This approach recognizes that patient care is not just about the individual but also about the broader support system. This holistic viewpoint helps nurses tailor their care to meet the unique needs of each patient and their family, ultimately leading to better outcomes.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: Allowing unrestricted visiting for the patient 24 hours is not directly related to the focus of the synergy model which is more about patient-centered care.
B: Providing holistic and alternative therapies is a valid approach, but it is not the primary focus of the synergy model.
D: Addressing the patients' needs for energy and support is important but does not capture the comprehensive nature of the synergy model which encompasses the needs of both patients and their families.
Question 2
As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the high-risk obstetric patient who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer–Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that
A. immediate birth is required.
B. the patient should be transferred to the critical care unit for closer observation.
C. RhoGAM should be administered.
D. a tetanus shot should be administered.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — immediate birth is required.
The correct answer is A: immediate birth is required. The Kleihauer–Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage in situations where there is a risk of fetal blood entering the maternal circulation, such as trauma during pregnancy. A positive result indicates a significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which can lead to Rh incompatibility and severe fetal anemia. Immediate birth is required to prevent complications and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.
Choice B is incorrect as transferring the patient to the critical care unit does not address the underlying issue of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as RhoGAM is typically administered to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive babies, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as a tetanus shot is not directly related to the positive Kleihauer–Betke test result indicating fetal-maternal hemorrhage.
Question 3
A pregnant patient is 26 weeks gestation and reports difficulty breathing when lying flat. What should the nurse recommend?
A. Encourage the patient to sleep on the left side to improve circulation and reduce pressure on the diaphragm.
B. Recommend sleeping in a fully reclined position to prevent shortness of breath.
C. Administer oxygen as prescribed to ensure proper oxygenation.
D. Instruct the patient to lie flat on her back and use a pillow for support.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Encourage the patient to sleep on the left side to improve circulation and reduce pressure on the diaphragm.
The correct answer is A: Encourage the patient to sleep on the left side to improve circulation and reduce pressure on the diaphragm. At 26 weeks gestation, the uterus can compress the inferior vena cava when lying flat on the back, leading to decreased blood return to the heart and reduced cardiac output, causing difficulty breathing. Sleeping on the left side helps improve circulation by reducing pressure on the vena cava, enhancing blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus and mother.
Incorrect options:
B: Recommending sleeping in a fully reclined position may not alleviate the compression on the vena cava and could potentially worsen the patient's symptoms.
C: Administering oxygen may help with oxygenation but does not address the underlying issue of vena cava compression due to the growing uterus.
D: Instructing the patient to lie flat on her back can exacerbate the issue by further compressing the vena cava, worsening breathing difficulties.
Question 4
Andrew, a New York City firefighter, and his entire unit responded to the terrorist attacks at the World Trade Center. Working as a team, he and his best friend, Carlo, entered the area together. Carlo was killed when the building collapsed. Andrew was injured, but survived. Since that time, Andrew has had frequent nightmares and anxiety attacks. He says to the mental health worker, 'I don’t know why Carlo had to die and I didn’t!' This statement by Andrew suggests that he is experiencing:
A. Spiritual distress
B. Night terrors
C. Survivor’s guilt
D. Suicidal ideation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Survivor’s guilt
The correct answer is C: Survivor's guilt. Andrew's statement indicates feelings of guilt and confusion about why he survived while Carlo did not. Survivor's guilt is a common psychological response in individuals who have lived through a traumatic event where others did not. Andrew's frequent nightmares and anxiety attacks are also typical symptoms of survivor's guilt.
A: Spiritual distress is not the correct answer in this scenario as Andrew's statement does not specifically reference any spiritual or religious beliefs or conflicts.
B: Night terrors may be a symptom of Andrew's PTSD, but his statement about not understanding why he survived while Carlo did not suggests a deeper emotional struggle beyond just experiencing night terrors.
D: Suicidal ideation is not the correct answer as Andrew's statement does not indicate any desire or intention to harm himself. Rather, he is expressing confusion and guilt about surviving the traumatic event.
Question 5
48 hours after performing tuberculin test (Mantoux test) to a child a 10 mm papule appeared on the spot of tuberculin introduction. What hypersensitivity mechanism underlies these changes?
A. Cellular cytotoxicity
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
D. Granulomatosis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Granulomatosis
The correct answer is D: Granulomatosis. The appearance of a 10 mm papule 48 hours after the Mantoux test indicates a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction, which is characteristic of granulomatosis. This type of reaction involves activation of macrophages and T cells, leading to the formation of granulomas. Granulomas are organized collections of immune cells that wall off the antigen, in this case, the tuberculin antigen.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Cellular cytotoxicity involves the destruction of target cells by immune cells such as cytotoxic T cells or natural killer cells. This mechanism is not associated with the delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction seen in granulomatosis.
B: Anaphylaxis is a rapid and severe allergic reaction involving IgE-mediated release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. This is not the mechanism underlying the delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in the Mantoux test.
C: Antibody-dependent cytotoxic
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Question 6
Which of the ff nursing interventions ensure that a client with Hodgkin’s disease remains free of infection? Choose all that apply
A. Apply ice to the skin for brief periods
B. Provide cool sponge baths
C. Practice conscientious hand washing
D. Use cotton gloves Restrict visitors or personnel with infections from contact with the client
Correct answer:
Rationale:
C: Practice conscientious hand washing is correct as it helps prevent the spread of infection. Proper hand hygiene is essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission to the client with Hodgkin's disease.
A: Apply ice to the skin for brief periods is incorrect as it does not directly relate to preventing infection in the client.
B: Provide cool sponge baths is incorrect as it mainly addresses comfort and hygiene but does not specifically target infection prevention.
D: Use cotton gloves Restrict visitors or personnel with infections from contact with the client is incorrect because while using gloves can help prevent the spread of infection, restricting visitors with infections is not under the direct control of the nurse.
Summary:
Practicing conscientious hand washing is crucial in preventing infection in a client with Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices do not directly address infection control in this context.
A female who had been continuously taking antibiotics for an intestinal infection developed a complication manifested by inflammation of the oral mucosa and white deposit. Bacteriological study of the deposit samples revealed yeast fungi Candida albicans. Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of this complication?
A. Fluconazole
B. Biseptol
C. Tetracycline
D. Furazolidone
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Fluconazole): Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections caused by Candida albicans. It targets the fungal cell membrane, disrupting its structure and function. This makes it an effective treatment for oral thrush, which is caused by Candida overgrowth in the oral mucosa. The continuous use of antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of microorganisms in the body, leading to fungal overgrowth. Fluconazole specifically targets the yeast fungi without affecting bacteria, making it the appropriate choice for this complication.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Biseptol - Biseptol is an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi like Candida albicans.
C: Tetracycline - Tetracycline is also an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi.
D: Furazolidone - Furazolidone is an antibiotic primarily used for treating bacterial infections, not fungal infections like oral thrush caused by Candida
The nurse is educating the pregnant patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 33. The nurse knows that teaching has been effective when the patient states which of the following?
A. My child may be at increased risk for birth injury.
B. My child may have a decreased risk of developing childhood diabetes.
C. I will probably give birth vaginally.
D. I have a lower risk of developing gestational hypertension.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: "My child may be at increased risk for birth injury." This is correct because a pregnant patient with a BMI of 33 is considered obese, which can increase the risk of birth injury to the baby due to complications such as macrosomia (large birth weight).
Explanation:
1. Obesity in pregnancy can lead to complications such as macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, and birth trauma.
2. Higher BMI can also increase the risk of cesarean delivery, which may be necessary to prevent birth injuries.
3. Childhood diabetes risk is not decreased with maternal obesity.
4. Mode of delivery (vaginal or cesarean) is not solely determined by BMI.
5. Gestational hypertension risk is actually higher in women with obesity.
In summary, choice A is correct because it directly relates to the increased risk of birth injury associated with maternal obesity, while the other choices are not directly linked to the patient's BMI and pregnancy complications.
When examining a patient with a suspicion of food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he had eaten the day before. What is the most probable cause of infection?
A. Homemade canned meat
B. Custard pastry from private bakery
C. Sour cream from local dairy factory
D. Strawberries from suburban vegetable garden
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is often caused by consuming improperly canned or preserved foods, particularly meats. The spores of the Clostridium botulinum bacteria can grow in anaerobic conditions, such as those found in improperly canned foods, leading to the production of the botulinum toxin. The symptoms of botulism align with those characteristic of the patient's condition.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Custard pastry from private bakery - Unlikely to be the cause of botulism as this type of food is not typically associated with the growth of Clostridium botulinum.
C: Sour cream from local dairy factory - While dairy products can sometimes be sources of foodborne illness, botulism is not commonly associated with sour cream.
D: Strawberries from suburban vegetable garden - Botulism is not typically transmitted through fresh fruits or vegetables, making this an unlikely source of infection.
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s database for significant changes and discovers that the patient has not voided in over 8 hours. The patient’s kidney function lab results are abnormal, and the patient’s oral intake has significantly decreased since previous shifts. Which step of the nursing process should the nurse proceed to after this review?
A. Diagnosis
B. Planning NursingStoreRN
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Diagnosis. The nurse should proceed to the diagnosis step of the nursing process after reviewing the patient's data. In this step, the nurse will analyze the information gathered to identify the patient's health problems and needs. Given the patient's lack of voiding, abnormal kidney function, and decreased oral intake, the nurse needs to determine the underlying issues contributing to these findings. This analysis will guide the nurse in developing a plan of care to address the patient's specific health concerns.
Choice B: Planning would be premature without a clear understanding of the patient's health problems, needs, and contributing factors. Choice C: Implementation would involve carrying out interventions without a thorough understanding of the patient's health issues. Choice D: Evaluation comes after the implementation of interventions to assess their effectiveness, which cannot be done without a clear diagnosis.
A patient at 8 weeks' gestation complains to the nurse, 'I feel sick almost every morning. And I throw up at least two or three times a week.' What is the nurse's best guidance for this patient?
A. Do you like cheese?'
B. Try eating four meals a day instead of three meals a day.'
C. Try eating peanut butter on whole wheat bread right before going to bed.'
D. If you can eat enough throughout the day, you don't have to worry about being sick.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: 'Try eating peanut butter on whole wheat bread right before going to bed.' This recommendation is based on the fact that consuming a small snack high in protein and complex carbohydrates before going to bed can help stabilize blood sugar levels and reduce morning sickness symptoms in pregnant women. Peanut butter provides protein and whole wheat bread provides complex carbohydrates, which can help alleviate nausea and vomiting.
Choice A is incorrect because asking about cheese does not address the patient's symptoms or provide any practical guidance for managing morning sickness.
Choice B is incorrect because increasing the number of meals may not necessarily alleviate morning sickness and could potentially exacerbate symptoms.
Choice D is incorrect because suggesting that eating enough throughout the day will prevent sickness oversimplifies the issue and does not offer targeted advice for managing morning sickness.
The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test?
A. Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?
B. Do you have any family members with a history of TB?
C. How long has it been since you moved to the United States?
A pregnant patient at 30 weeks gestation reports lower back pain and difficulty sleeping. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for the nurse to make?
A. Rest in bed with your legs elevated to reduce back pain.
B. Use a firm mattress and avoid sleeping on your back.
C. Take over-the-counter pain medications as prescribed to alleviate pain.
D. Perform light stretching exercises before bed to relieve discomfort.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. Using a firm mattress and avoiding sleeping on the back is the most appropriate recommendation for a pregnant patient at 30 weeks gestation experiencing lower back pain. Here's why:
1. Firm mattress provides better support for the back and helps maintain proper spinal alignment during sleep.
2. Avoiding sleeping on the back reduces pressure on the major blood vessels, preventing potential complications like supine hypotensive syndrome.
3. Resting in bed with legs elevated (choice A) may not address the root cause of back pain and may not be recommended for extended periods during pregnancy.
4. Taking over-the-counter pain medications (choice C) should be avoided unless prescribed by a healthcare provider due to potential risks to the fetus.
5. Performing light stretching exercises (choice D) can be beneficial, but avoiding certain positions like lying on the back is more crucial for back pain relief during pregnancy.
While giving a history, a patient reports having a weak urinary stream and feeling that his bladder is not empty after urination. Based on these data, what finding does the nurse anticipate upon examination?
A. An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum
B. An indirect hernia palpated through the inguinal ring when the patient coughs
C. The foreskin of the penis cannot be returned to position after retraction behind the glans
D. A nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum. In this case, the patient's weak urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying are classic symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). During a rectal examination, an enlarged prostate gland can be felt as a smooth, rubbery, and symmetrically enlarged mass on the anterior wall of the rectum. This finding correlates with the patient's urinary symptoms, indicating obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate.
Choice B is incorrect because an indirect hernia is not typically associated with urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it describes paraphimosis, a condition where the foreskin cannot be returned to its original position. Choice D is incorrect as a nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum is more characteristic of prostate cancer rather than BPH, which is typically felt on the anterior wall.
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
A. Radiographs
B. CT scan without contrast
C. MRI
D. PET scan
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: CT scan without contrast. A CT scan is the most useful imaging study in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this patient. CT scan is preferred for acute trauma to the head as it provides detailed images of the brain, skull, and facial bones. It can detect acute hemorrhages, fractures, or other signs of trauma. In this case, the patient's presentation with periorbital ecchymosis and facial swelling raises suspicion for traumatic injury, which can be assessed effectively with a CT scan.
Radiographs (choice A) are not as sensitive as CT scans in detecting subtle fractures or soft tissue injuries in the head and face. MRI (choice C) is not typically used in acute trauma assessment and may not provide timely information needed in this case. PET scan (choice D) is not indicated for evaluating traumatic head injuries and is more commonly used for assessing metabolic and functional activity in the body.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 43 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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