RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 31
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 31
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
You are on-scene with a patient suspected of taking a large amount of meperidine hydrochloride. Which of the following interventions may be effective in reversing the adverse effects of the ingested medication?
A. Activated charcoal
B. Atropine
C. Romazicon
D. Naloxone
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Naloxone
The correct answer is D: Naloxone. Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose by competitively binding to opioid receptors. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse the adverse effects of meperidine overdose and restore normal respiratory function in the patient.
Activated charcoal (A) is used to absorb toxins in the gastrointestinal tract but is not effective in reversing the effects of opioids. Atropine (B) is an anticholinergic drug used to treat bradycardia and not effective in reversing opioid overdose. Romazicon (C) is a benzodiazepine antagonist and not effective in reversing opioid overdose.
In summary, naloxone is the correct intervention for reversing the adverse effects of meperidine hydrochloride overdose due to its opioid antagonist properties, while the other choices are not effective in this specific scenario
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is 30 weeks gestation and has a BMI of 32. Which of the following complications should the nurse monitor for more closely?
A. Gestational diabetes and preeclampsia
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum and miscarriage
C. Iron-deficiency anemia and urinary tract infections
D. Gestational hypertension and placenta previa
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Gestational diabetes and preeclampsia
The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes and preeclampsia. A pregnant patient with a BMI of 32 is considered obese, which increases the risk of developing gestational diabetes and preeclampsia. Gestational diabetes is more likely in overweight women and can lead to complications for both the mother and baby. Preeclampsia is also more common in obese women and can result in high blood pressure and organ damage. Monitoring for these complications is crucial to ensure the well-being of both the mother and baby.
Incorrect choices:
B: Hyperemesis gravidarum and miscarriage - These complications are not directly related to the patient's weight or BMI.
C: Iron-deficiency anemia and urinary tract infections - While these complications can occur in pregnancy, they are not specifically associated with the patient's BMI.
D: Gestational hypertension and placenta previa - While gestational hypertension can be a concern in obese patients, placenta previa is not directly linked to
Question 3
A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who is at 34 weeks gestation and reports swelling in the legs and feet. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Monitor the patient's blood pressure and assess for signs of preeclampsia.
B. Encourage the patient to rest with her feet elevated.
C. Administer a diuretic to reduce swelling.
D. Instruct the patient to reduce fluid intake to decrease swelling.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Monitor the patient's blood pressure and assess for signs of preeclampsia.
The correct answer is A: Monitor the patient's blood pressure and assess for signs of preeclampsia. At 34 weeks gestation, swelling in the legs and feet can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. The priority action is to assess for signs of preeclampsia, as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial in identifying preeclampsia early.
Choice B is incorrect because while elevating the feet may provide some relief from swelling, it does not address the potential underlying issue of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because administering a diuretic without assessing for preeclampsia can be dangerous and potentially harmful to the patient and the baby. Choice D is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration, which is not a recommended approach in pregnancy without proper assessment and guidance from healthcare providers.
Question 4
The nurse has observed that an older adult patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal failure seems to prefer to have his eldest son make all of his health care decisions. While the family is visiting, the patient explains to you that this is a cultural practice and very important to him. How should you respond?
A. Privately ask the son to allow the patient to make his own health care decisions.
B. Explain to the patient that he is responsible for his own decisions.
C. Work with the team to negotiate informed consent.
D. Avoid divulging information to the eldest son.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Work with the team to negotiate informed consent.
The correct answer is C: Work with the team to negotiate informed consent. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize respecting the patient's cultural beliefs while also ensuring the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about his own healthcare. By working with the healthcare team to negotiate informed consent, the nurse can involve both the patient and his eldest son in the decision-making process, ensuring that the patient's preferences are respected while also upholding ethical principles of patient autonomy and beneficence. This approach promotes collaboration and respect for cultural values while still safeguarding the patient's rights.
Choice A is incorrect because it does not involve the patient in the decision-making process and could undermine his autonomy. Choice B is incorrect as it disregards the patient's cultural beliefs and preferences. Choice D is incorrect as it may violate the patient's right to information and involvement in his own care.
Question 5
The nurse in the emergency department tells the daughter of a patient that her 86-year-old mother has had a stroke. The daughter tearfully asks the nurse, 'Who will take care of me now?' When the nurse explores this query, the daughter mentions that her mother always tells her what job to take, what clothes to buy and wear, and what to have for lunch. The daughter states that she needs someone to direct her and reassure her when she gets anxious. With which personality disorder is this presentation most consistent?
A. Histrionic
B. Dependent
C. Narcissistic
D. Borderline
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Dependent
The correct answer is B: Dependent. This presentation is most consistent with dependent personality disorder because the daughter is displaying excessive need for someone to take care of her and make decisions for her, as well as seeking reassurance and guidance when anxious. Individuals with dependent personality disorder often lack self-confidence and rely heavily on others for emotional and physical needs.
Choice A: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by attention-seeking behavior and excessive emotions, which do not match the daughter's presentation.
Choice C: Narcissistic personality disorder involves a grandiose sense of self-importance and a lack of empathy for others, which is not evident in the daughter's behavior.
Choice D: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by unstable relationships, self-image, and emotions, as well as impulsive behaviors, which are not reflected in the daughter's need for constant direction and reassurance.
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Question 6
The nurse is caring for a patient with severe neurological impairment following a massive stroke. The primary care provider has ordered tests to detearbmirbi.ncoem b/treasit n death. The nurse understands that criteria for brain death includes what crite ria? (Select all that apply.)
A. Absence of cerebral blood flow.
B. Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examin ation.
C. Presents of Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
D. Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Absence of cerebral blood flow. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain functions, including blood flow to the brain. When there is no cerebral blood flow, the brain is unable to function, leading to brain death. This criterion is essential in diagnosing brain death as it indicates a complete loss of brain function.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
- B: Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examination is a common sign of brain death, but it is not the primary criterion.
- C: Presence of Cheyne-Stokes respirations is not indicative of brain death. It is a pattern of breathing that can be seen in various conditions, not specifically brain death.
- D: Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram is a supportive test for brain death but not the primary criterion. The absence of brain activity on an EEG can help confirm brain death but is not as definitive as the absence of cerebral blood flow.
A patient who is expecting her first baby tells the nurse, “I am afraid of the whole birth experience and plan to ask the doctor for a cesarean delivery.” Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. I will get you some material about how labor pain is managed.
B. Most women avoid cesarean births unless it is an emergency.
C. I suggest you talk with the physician and get another opinion.
D. Cesarean will cause you issues with additional pregnancies.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Most women avoid cesarean births unless it is an emergency.
Rationale:
1. Cesarean delivery is a major surgery with potential risks and longer recovery time compared to vaginal birth.
2. Most women opt for vaginal birth unless there are medical reasons necessitating a cesarean section.
3. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient on the benefits of vaginal birth and address her fears about the birth experience.
4. Encouraging the patient to consider vaginal birth unless there is a medical emergency aligns with best practices in obstetric care.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on pain management may not address the patient's underlying fear of the birth experience.
- Choice C is incorrect as seeking another opinion may not be necessary if the patient's concerns can be addressed through education and counseling.
- Choice D is incorrect as not all cesarean deliveries lead to complications in subsequent pregnancies.
Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse?
A. Use and side effects of isoniazid
B. Standard four-drug therapy for TB
C. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing
D. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Standard four-drug therapy for TB. In this scenario, the nurse has a positive TB skin test but no symptoms or chest x-ray findings. This suggests latent TB infection. The standard treatment for latent TB infection is a four-drug therapy regimen to prevent the progression to active TB. It is essential for the occupational health nurse to educate the staff nurse about this treatment to prevent the development of active TB disease.
Choice A (Use and side effects of isoniazid) is incorrect because while isoniazid is part of the treatment regimen for latent TB infection, the nurse needs to be educated about the full four-drug therapy regimen, not just one drug.
Choice C (Need for annual repeat TB skin testing) is incorrect as the positive TB skin test already indicates latent TB infection, so repeat skin testing annually is not necessary.
Choice D (Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing) is incorrect because sputum cytology testing is not
Which patient does the nurse recognize as having the highest risk for ovarian cancer?
A. A 24-year-old nulliparous woman who has a history of multiple sexual partners
B. A 32-year-old woman who has had six live births and a history of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
C. A 55-year-old woman who reached menarche at age 12 and menopause at age 54
D. A 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the patient is a 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years. Nulliparity (never giving birth) and prolonged use of hormone replacement therapy are both risk factors for ovarian cancer. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence in women over 60.
Choice A is incorrect because although having multiple sexual partners may increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections, it is not a direct risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because while HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, it is not a known risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice C is incorrect because the age of menarche and menopause are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer.
In summary, the correct answer, D, combines the highest risk factors for ovarian cancer, which are nulliparity, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, and older age.
A nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are helping a client during a hysterosalpingogram. Which action by the nurse is best delegated to the UAP?
A. Witnessing of the consent form
B. Assisting the client into a lithotomy position
C. Asking about allergies to iodine or shellfish
D. Assessing for pelvic or shoulder pain after the study
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Assisting the client into a lithotomy position. This task can be safely delegated to the UAP as it involves physically assisting the client into a specific position and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or assessment skills. The nurse should be available to provide guidance and supervision to ensure the safety and comfort of the client during the procedure.
Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require nursing assessment and critical thinking skills, which should be performed by the nurse. Witnessing the consent form (choice A) ensures proper documentation and understanding of the procedure. Asking about allergies to iodine or shellfish (choice C) is crucial to prevent adverse reactions during the procedure. Assessing for pelvic or shoulder pain after the study (choice D) is important to monitor for any potential complications post-procedure. These tasks are within the scope of nursing practice and should not be delegated to a UAP.
A 45-year-old married woman who works full time in a factory has recently been absent for 3-day periods on several occasions. Each time, she returned to work wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises were apparent. Her supervisor became suspicious that she was a victim of battering and referred her to the occupational health nurse. What should the nurse first focus on as she meets the patient?
A. Notifying the police of the abuse
B. Documenting the woman's injuries
C. Establishing trust and building rapport
D. Collecting evidence to prosecute the abuser
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Establishing trust and building rapport. The nurse should first focus on building a trusting relationship with the patient to create a safe environment for her to disclose any abuse she may be experiencing. By establishing trust and rapport, the nurse can gain the patient's confidence and encourage her to open up about her situation. This approach is crucial in ensuring the patient feels supported and empowered to seek help.
Incorrect choices:
A: Notifying the police of the abuse - This may jeopardize the patient's safety and could worsen the situation if she is not ready to involve law enforcement.
B: Documenting the woman's injuries - While documenting injuries is important, it should not be the first step as it may further distress the patient without addressing the underlying issue.
D: Collecting evidence to prosecute the abuser - Prosecution should not be the initial focus; the priority should be on the patient's well-being and safety.
The nurse is counseling a client on dietary recommendations for dysmenorrhea. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the recommendations?
A. I should adopt a vegan diet.
B. I should avoid pretzels and potato chips.
C. I should increase my intake of cranberry juice.
D. I should avoid dairy.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: B - I should avoid pretzels and potato chips.
Rationale:
1. Pretzels and potato chips are high in salt, which can contribute to bloating and water retention, exacerbating dysmenorrhea symptoms.
2. Avoiding these snacks can help regulate blood sugar levels and reduce inflammation, leading to improved menstrual discomfort.
3. Choosing healthier snack options like fruits, vegetables, and whole grains can provide essential nutrients and support overall well-being.
Incorrect Choices:
A. Adopting a vegan diet may or may not directly impact dysmenorrhea symptoms, as it depends on the individual's specific dietary needs and nutrient intake.
C. Increasing cranberry juice intake is more commonly recommended for urinary tract infections, not specifically for dysmenorrhea.
D. Avoiding dairy is not a universal recommendation for dysmenorrhea, as dairy products can provide essential nutrients like calcium and vitamin D that are beneficial for overall health.
A 32-year-old female patient arrives to the emergency department with heavy uterine bleeding. The nurse finds that the patient had a positive pregnancy test 1 month prior to the visit. What is the potential medical management for this patient's issue?
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. Dilation and curettage
C. Colposcopy
D. Laparoscopy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Dilation and curettage. This procedure is indicated for heavy uterine bleeding in the setting of a positive pregnancy test to diagnose and treat conditions such as incomplete miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Dilation and curettage involves dilating the cervix and scraping the uterine lining to remove any remaining products of conception. It is important in this case to rule out any potential sources of bleeding that could be life-threatening.
A: Endometrial biopsy is not the appropriate initial management in this scenario as it is primarily used to assess endometrial pathology such as cancer.
C: Colposcopy is a procedure used to examine the cervix and vagina for abnormalities, not typically indicated for heavy uterine bleeding in the setting of a positive pregnancy test.
D: Laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to view the abdominal organs, not typically indicated for uterine bleeding related to a positive pregnancy test.
A client who has been diagnosed as having paranoid schizophrenia is highly suspicious and delusional. He hears voices telling him terrorists are plotting to assassinate him. He refuses to eat, saying the food is poisoned. The nursing action that best addresses his needs is to:
A. Explain that others eat the food and are not harmed
B. Allow client to select food from vending machines
C. Assist client with personal hygiene and grooming
D. Not allow client to verbalize delusional thoughts
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Allow client to select food from vending machines. This option respects the client's autonomy and addresses his delusion about the food being poisoned. By allowing the client to choose food from vending machines, it acknowledges his concerns and promotes a sense of control over his environment. This approach can help build trust and rapport with the client, as forcing him to eat regular hospital food might exacerbate his paranoia and resistance.
A: Explaining that others eat the food and are not harmed may not be effective as it disregards the client's beliefs and could further alienate him.
C: Assisting with personal hygiene and grooming is important but does not directly address the client's primary concern of refusing to eat due to delusional beliefs.
D: Not allowing the client to verbalize delusional thoughts is counterproductive as it suppresses communication and does not address the underlying issue of the client's fear of being poisoned.
The Affordable Care Act (ACA) is a complex law that has multiple provisions. The ACA was passed by congress and signed into law on March 23, 2010. Which of the following is a major provision that is focused on reshaping the healthcare sector?
A. A reform in payment methodologies including bundled payments, medical homes, and accountable care organizations
B. Reducing Medicare spending by establishing penalties for readmission rates, reducing payments, incentivizing quality improvements, and establishing an advisory review board
C. Expanding insurance coverage by way of regulations, subsidies, and encouraging state and federal insurance marketplaces
D. All of the above
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: All of the above. The ACA is a comprehensive law that includes multiple provisions aimed at reshaping the healthcare sector.
A: A reform in payment methodologies such as bundled payments, medical homes, and accountable care organizations is a major provision of the ACA. These payment reforms aim to incentivize providers to deliver high-quality care efficiently.
B: Reducing Medicare spending through penalties for readmission rates, payment reductions, quality improvement incentives, and the establishment of an advisory review board is another key provision. This helps control costs and improve the quality of care.
C: Expanding insurance coverage through regulations, subsidies, and the creation of insurance marketplaces is also a major focus of the ACA. This provision aims to increase access to healthcare for millions of Americans.
Therefore, all of the choices are major provisions of the ACA focused on reshaping the healthcare sector.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 31 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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