RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 37
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 37
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A child cut his leg with a piece of glass while playing and was brought to the clinic for the injection of tetanus toxoid. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock the serum was administered by Bezredka method. What mechanism underlies this method of desensitization of the body?
A. Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cells
B. Blocking the mediator synthesis in the mast cells
C. Stimulation of immune tolerance to the antigen
D. Stimulation of the synthesis of antigenspecific IgG
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cells
The correct answer is A: Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cells. The Bezredka method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the antigen (tetanus toxoid) to desensitize the body and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, thereby reducing the release of allergic mediators like histamine. This prevents the cascade of events that lead to anaphylactic shock.
Choice B (Blocking the mediator synthesis in the mast cells) is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not block mediator synthesis but rather prevents the release of mediators by binding IgE.
Choice C (Stimulation of immune tolerance to the antigen) is incorrect as the Bezredka method does not primarily focus on inducing immune tolerance but rather on preventing anaphylactic reactions.
Choice D (Stimulation of the synthesis of antigen-specific IgG) is incorrect because the Bezredka method targets IgE antibodies on mast cells
Question 2
The nurse is reviewing a chart in the newborn nursery. An RN was ordered to take blood glucose (BG) recordings on a newborn delivered that morning. BG readings are as follows: 50 mg/dL at 7:00 a.m.; 57 mg/dL at 10:00 a.m.; 62 mg/dL at 12:00 p.m.; 67 mg/dL at 2:00 p.m.; and 68 at 4:00 p.m. What action should the nurse perform with these recordings?
A. Notify the physician immediately that the BG readings on this newborn are low.
B. Immediately give the newborn glucose water.
C. Confirm the readings with the laboratory.
D. Review orders for the timing of next BG reading.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Review orders for the timing of next BG reading.
The correct answer is D: Review orders for the timing of next BG reading. This is the correct action because the nurse should follow the protocol and guidelines set by the healthcare provider regarding the frequency and timing of blood glucose monitoring in newborns. By reviewing the orders, the nurse ensures that the newborn's blood glucose levels are monitored appropriately and at the right intervals. This helps in maintaining the newborn's health and identifying any potential issues promptly.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Notify the physician immediately that the BG readings on this newborn are low - Premature action without assessing the situation or following protocol.
B: Immediately give the newborn glucose water - Inappropriate and potentially harmful intervention without proper evaluation.
C: Confirm the readings with the laboratory - Unnecessary step as the nurse can follow the established protocol without involving the laboratory unnecessarily.
Question 3
The client has been taking danazol for endometriosis for 3 years. She tells you that she would like to have a baby and wants to stop taking this medication. She wants to know what will happen when she stops. Which is the nurse’s best response?
A. Nothing, your endometriosis will not return.
B. If you stop taking danazol, it could increase your blood pressure.
C. Once you stop any medication for endometriosis, your symptoms may return in 1 to 5 years.
D. Once you stop the medication, the growths from endometriosis will return in 2 to 3 months.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Once you stop any medication for endometriosis, your symptoms may return in 1 to 5 years.
Rationale for Correct Answer (C): The nurse should explain to the client that once she stops any medication for endometriosis, her symptoms may return in 1 to 5 years. This is the best response because endometriosis is a chronic condition, and stopping the medication can lead to a recurrence of symptoms over time. It is important for the client to be aware of this possibility to make informed decisions about her health and fertility. By mentioning the timeframe of 1 to 5 years, the nurse provides a general idea of when symptoms may return, allowing the client to plan accordingly.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Nothing, your endometriosis will not return - This is incorrect because endometriosis is a chronic condition that can recur when medication is stopped.
B: If you stop taking danazol, it could increase your blood pressure - This is incorrect as danazol is not typically associated with blood pressure changes upon discontinuation.
D: Once you stop
Question 4
A 54-year-old has a diagnosis of breast cancer and is tearfully discussing her diagnosis with the nurse. The patient states, They tell me my cancer is malignant, while my coworkers breast tumor was benign. I just dont understand at all. When preparing a response to this patient, the nurse should be cognizant of what characteristic that distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type?
A. Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells
B. Different proteins in the cell membrane
C. Differing size of the cells
D. Different molecular structure in the cells
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Different molecular structure in the cells
The correct answer is D: Different molecular structure in the cells. Malignant cells have alterations in their molecular structure, leading to uncontrolled growth and invasion of surrounding tissues, while benign cells retain their normal molecular structure and do not invade nearby tissues. This distinction is crucial in understanding why malignant cells are cancerous and pose a greater risk compared to benign cells.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells - Malignant cells actually have a rapid rate of mitosis, contributing to their uncontrolled growth.
B: Different proteins in the cell membrane - While there may be differences in proteins, the molecular structure is a more fundamental difference between malignant and benign cells.
C: Differing size of the cells - Cell size alone is not a definitive characteristic that distinguishes between malignant and benign cells; molecular structure plays a more significant role.
Question 5
Ms. Wright comes to your office, complaining of palpitations. While checking her pulse you notice an irregular rhythm. When you listen to her heart, every fourth beat sounds different. It sounds like a triplet rather than the usual "lub dup." How would you document your examination?
A. Regular rate and rhythm
B. Irregularly irregular rhythm
C. Regularly irregular rhythm
D. Bradycardia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Regularly irregular rhythm
The correct answer is C: Regularly irregular rhythm. This is the appropriate documentation for Ms. Wright's presentation as her pulse demonstrates a pattern of irregularity with every fourth beat sounding different. This indicates a regularly irregular rhythm, where there is a discernible pattern to the irregularity.
Rationale:
1. Regular rate and rhythm (Choice A) is incorrect as Ms. Wright's palpitations and the irregularity in her pulse indicate an irregular rhythm.
2. Irregularly irregular rhythm (Choice B) is incorrect as this term is used to describe arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation, which do not have a discernible pattern of irregularity.
3. Bradycardia (Choice D) is incorrect as it refers to a slow heart rate, which is not the primary concern in this scenario where the focus is on the irregular rhythm.
In summary, the correct choice (C) accurately describes the specific irregular pattern observed in Ms. Wright's pulse, distinguishing it from
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Question 6
Family assessment can be challenging and each nurse may obtain additional information regarding family structure and dynamics. What is the best way to share this information from shift to shift?
A. Create an informal family information sheet that is kept on the bedside clipboard. That way, everyone can review it quickly when needed .
B. Develop a standardized reporting form for family infora mbir ab. tc io om n/ te thst a t is incorporated into the patient’s medical record and updated as neede d.
C. Require that the charge nurse have a detailed list of inf ormation about each patient and family member. Thus, someone on the unit is always knowledgeable about potential issues.
D. Try to remember to discuss family structure and dynamics as part of the change-of-shift report.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because developing a standardized reporting form for family information that is incorporated into the patient's medical record ensures consistency and accuracy in sharing vital details about family structure and dynamics from shift to shift. This method allows all healthcare providers to access the information easily and update it as needed, promoting continuity of care and comprehensive understanding of the family's needs.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because:
A: Creating an informal family information sheet may lead to inconsistencies in the information shared among healthcare providers and may not be updated regularly.
C: Requiring only the charge nurse to have detailed information may result in information silos and lack of accessibility for all team members.
D: Discussing family dynamics as part of the change-of-shift report may lead to important details being missed or forgotten, compromising the quality of care provided.
Basing upon the data of laboratory assessment of sanitary state of soil in a certain territory, the soil was found to be low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value; contaminated according to the coli titer; low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens). This is indicative of:
A. Fresh fecal contamination
B. Old fecal contamination
C. Insufficient intensity of soil humification
D. Constant entry of organic protein contaminations
Correct answer:
Step 1: The soil is low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value, which indicates that the contamination is recent.
Step 2: The soil is contaminated according to coli titer, suggesting the presence of coliform bacteria typically found in fresh fecal matter.
Step 3: The soil is low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens), which is an indicator of recent fecal contamination.
Step 4: Based on the above steps, the correct answer is A: Fresh fecal contamination, as the presence of coliform bacteria and recent anaerobe titer levels point to recent fecal contamination.
Summary:
B: Old fecal contamination - Incorrect because the indicators suggest recent contamination.
C: Insufficient intensity of soil humification - Incorrect as it is not related to the specific indicators mentioned in the question.
D: Constant entry of organic protein contaminations - Incorrect as the indicators point towards fecal contamination, not protein
How can a nurse best prevent heat loss in a newborn during the first hour of life?
A. Place the newborn under a radiant warmer
B. Dry the newborn and cover with a warm blanket
C. Place the newborn in a skin-to-skin position with the mother
D. Keep the newborn wrapped in a wet blanket
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Place the newborn under a radiant warmer. This method is the most effective in preventing heat loss in a newborn as radiant warmers provide a consistent heat source to maintain the newborn's body temperature. This is crucial during the first hour of life when newborns are at a higher risk of hypothermia.
Choice B is not as effective as using a radiant warmer as it may not provide enough warmth to prevent heat loss. Choice C, placing the newborn in a skin-to-skin position with the mother, is beneficial for bonding and regulating the newborn's temperature in the long term but may not be as effective as a radiant warmer in the immediate post-birth period.
Choice D, keeping the newborn wrapped in a wet blanket, is incorrect as wet blankets can further contribute to heat loss through evaporative cooling. In summary, using a radiant warmer is the best option for preventing heat loss in a newborn during the critical first hour of life.
A pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation reports swelling in the feet and hands. What should the nurse do first?
A. Monitor the patient's blood pressure and assess for signs of preeclampsia.
B. Encourage the patient to elevate her feet and rest for 30 minutes.
C. Recommend that the patient drink more water and reduce sodium intake.
D. Assess the patient for signs of a blood clot or deep vein thrombosis.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Monitor the patient's blood pressure and assess for signs of preeclampsia. At 32 weeks gestation, swelling in the feet and hands can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial as elevated blood pressure is a key indicator of preeclampsia. Assessing for other signs of preeclampsia such as headache, visual disturbances, or upper abdominal pain is important for early detection and management. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while elevation of feet, rest, hydration, and reducing sodium intake are important in managing mild swelling during pregnancy, in this case, the priority is to rule out preeclampsia which can lead to severe complications if left untreated. Assessing for blood clots or deep vein thrombosis is also important but
What is an example of a nurse modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase?
A. Adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal.
B. Performing routine monitoring of the client’s condition.
C. Administering medication as prescribed by the physician.
D. Completing discharge paperwork for the client.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase involves making changes based on the client's response to interventions. By adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal, the nurse demonstrates critical thinking and adaptability in response to the client's needs. This action shows that the nurse is actively assessing and revising the care plan to ensure it is effective in meeting the client's goals.
Choice B is incorrect because routine monitoring is part of the assessment and implementation phases, not specifically related to modifying the care plan during evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication is part of the implementation phase and does not necessarily involve modifying the care plan. Choice D is also incorrect as completing discharge paperwork is typically part of the discharge planning phase, not the evaluation phase where modifications to the care plan are made based on client outcomes.
The following has been found to act as a male contraceptive without affecting libido or potency:
A. Cyproterone acetate
B. Goserelin
C. Centchroman
D. Gossypol
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer C (Centchroman):
1. Centchroman is a non-hormonal male contraceptive that acts by inhibiting sperm production without affecting libido or potency.
2. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, which helps in contraception without affecting male sexual function.
3. Centchroman's mechanism of action does not interfere with testosterone levels or sexual desire, making it an effective male contraceptive option.
4. Studies have shown that centchroman is safe and well-tolerated, making it a suitable choice for male contraception.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Cyproterone acetate: It is a hormonal contraceptive that can affect libido and potency due to its anti-androgenic properties.
B. Goserelin: It is a hormonal drug that suppresses testosterone production, potentially affecting libido and potency.
D. Gossypol: It is a plant-derived compound that can impact sperm production and fertility without preserving libido and potency.
What will be considered as 1 of the 10 greatest public health achievements in the US to provide safer nutrition?
A. Healthier food options in schools
B. Eliminating junk food in cities
C. Reduction of microbial contamination of foods
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Reduction of microbial contamination of foods. This is a significant public health achievement as it directly addresses the safety of food consumed by the public, reducing the risk of foodborne illnesses. By implementing measures to reduce microbial contamination, such as proper food handling, sanitation practices, and food safety regulations, the likelihood of foodborne diseases is minimized, leading to a healthier population.
Choice A: Healthier food options in schools, while beneficial, focuses on improving nutritional quality rather than directly addressing food safety concerns related to microbial contamination.
Choice B: Eliminating junk food in cities aims at reducing the consumption of unhealthy foods but does not specifically target the safety of food in terms of microbial contamination.
Thus, choice C is the most appropriate option as it directly addresses the issue of food safety and its impact on public health.
Muscles are specialized tissues responsible for movement and are classified based on structure and function. The three distinct types are cardiac, smooth, and skeletal. Cardiac muscle powers the heart, contracting involuntarily to pump blood. Smooth muscle lines organs like the stomach and blood vessels, also working involuntarily to manage processes like digestion. Skeletal muscle, attached to bones, enables voluntary movements like walking or lifting. Tendons, ligaments, and joints are connective structures, not muscle types tendons link muscle to bone, ligaments connect bones, and joints are bone junctions. Flexion and extension describe movements, not muscle categories, and stringy isn't a scientific term for muscle. The correct classification reflects the histological and functional diversity of muscle tissue, critical for understanding their roles in the body, distinguishing them from structural or movement descriptors that don't define muscle itself.
The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score
of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B. Note the assessment finding in the infant’s chart.
C. Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D. Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. The nurse should assess for other abnormalities of the infant because the presence of two vessels in the umbilical cord (a condition known as a two-vessel cord) may be associated with other congenital anomalies. By assessing for other abnormalities, the nurse can identify any potential issues that may require immediate intervention or further evaluation. This proactive approach ensures the newborn's well-being and allows for timely management of any additional concerns.
Summary of other choices:
B: Noting the finding in the chart is important but does not address the immediate need to assess for other abnormalities.
C: Notifying the health care provider is important, but assessing for other abnormalities should be the nurse's initial priority.
D: Calling for the neonatal resuscitation team is not necessary based solely on the presence of a two-vessel cord; further assessment is needed before determining the need for resuscitation.
The nurse is caring for a 16-year-old patient who is 32 weeks pregnant with her first child, who is male. The patient's mother has accompanied her to today's visit. During the nursing assessment, the patient mentions that she is no longer in a relationship with the baby's father but her mother plans to help her. However, the patient's mother asks whether this will have any impact on the child. Which should the nurse indicate the child is at increased risk of during his adolescence?
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes
C. Alcohol abuse
D. Intraventricular bleeding
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Alcohol abuse. During adolescence, children of parents who have substance abuse issues, like alcohol, are at an increased risk of developing similar problems. This is due to genetic predisposition, environmental factors, and learned behavior. Children tend to model the behavior of their parents, and if they are exposed to alcohol abuse at a young age, they are more likely to engage in alcohol abuse themselves as they grow older.
Incorrect choices:
A: Hypertension - This choice is not directly related to the situation described and is not typically a risk factor associated with parental alcohol abuse.
B: Diabetes - Similar to choice A, diabetes is not directly linked to parental alcohol abuse and is not a common risk factor during adolescence in this scenario.
D: Intraventricular bleeding - This is a medical condition that is not typically influenced by parental alcohol abuse and is not a common risk factor during adolescence.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 37 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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