RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 36
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 36
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score
of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B. Note the assessment finding in the infant’s chart.
C. Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D. Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
The correct answer is A. The nurse should assess for other abnormalities of the infant because the presence of two vessels in the umbilical cord (a condition known as a two-vessel cord) may be associated with other congenital anomalies. By assessing for other abnormalities, the nurse can identify any potential issues that may require immediate intervention or further evaluation. This proactive approach ensures the newborn's well-being and allows for timely management of any additional concerns.
Summary of other choices:
B: Noting the finding in the chart is important but does not address the immediate need to assess for other abnormalities.
C: Notifying the health care provider is important, but assessing for other abnormalities should be the nurse's initial priority.
D: Calling for the neonatal resuscitation team is not necessary based solely on the presence of a two-vessel cord; further assessment is needed before determining the need for resuscitation.
Question 2
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "This test will confirm fetal lung maturity ".
B. "This test will determine adequacy of placental perfusion".
C. "This test will detect fetal infection".
D. "This test will predict maternal readiness for labor".
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "This test will determine adequacy of placental perfusion".
The correct answer is B: "This test will determine adequacy of placental perfusion." The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. It helps determine if the placenta is providing enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. This information is crucial in assessing the overall health and viability of the fetus.
A: "This test will confirm fetal lung maturity" - This statement is incorrect because the non-stress test does not assess fetal lung maturity. That is usually done through tests like amniocentesis.
C: "This test will detect fetal infection" - This statement is incorrect because the non-stress test does not detect fetal infection. Other tests like amniocentesis or blood tests are used for this purpose.
D: "This test will predict maternal readiness for labor" - This statement is incorrect as the non-stress test focuses on fetal well-being and does not predict maternal readiness for labor.
Question 3
A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a piece of glass and was sent to a clinic for an anti-tetanus serum injection. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock, the Besredka desensitization method was applied. What mechanism underlies this method?
A. Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells
B. Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators
C. Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance
D. Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG synthesis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells
The correct choice is A: Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells. The Besredka desensitization method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the allergen to induce tolerance and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the allergen to IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, which prevents the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators that trigger allergic reactions. This desensitization process helps the immune system become less reactive to the allergen over time.
Incorrect choices:
B: Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators - This choice does not reflect the mechanism of the Besredka desensitization method, which involves binding to IgE on mast cells.
C: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance - While this may sound plausible, the Besredka method specifically targets the IgE-mast cell interaction.
D: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG synthesis - While IgG antibodies may play a role in desensitization, the
Question 4
Which of the following should the nurse consider when planning care for a client with antisocial personality disorder? Clients with antisocial personality disorder:
A. Demand constant attention
B. Tolerate frustration well
C. Have well-developed superegos
D. Are initially often charming
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Are initially often charming
The correct answer is D: Are initially often charming. This is because individuals with antisocial personality disorder often exhibit charm and charisma to manipulate others for personal gain. This behavior is known as "charm offensive" and can be used to deceive and exploit others. This initial charm can make it difficult for others to recognize their true motives and manipulative nature.
Incorrect options:
A: Demand constant attention - Individuals with antisocial personality disorder may appear self-centered and manipulative but not necessarily demand constant attention.
B: Tolerate frustration well - Clients with antisocial personality disorder often have difficulty managing frustration and may resort to aggressive or impulsive behavior.
C: Have well-developed superegos - Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically lack empathy and have a weak or underdeveloped superego, leading to a disregard for social norms and the rights of others.
Question 5
Which of the following actions demonstrates that the nurse has an understanding of the impact that continued advancements in psychopharmacology has on both client outcomes and professional psychiatric nursing practice?
A. Working towards achieving advanced practice nursing credentials in psychiatric nursing
B. Stressing the importance of medication therapy compliance with each client upon discharge
C. Participating in interdisciplinary treatment teams as a means of staying current regarding the latest clinical treatments and guidelines
D. Accessing information on the best evidence-based practices regarding the psychopharmacology medications being prescribed to his or her clients
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Accessing information on the best evidence-based practices regarding the psychopharmacology medications being prescribed to his or her clients
Step-by-step rationale for why Answer D is correct:
1. Accessing information on evidence-based practices shows the nurse's commitment to staying informed about psychopharmacology advancements.
2. Being knowledgeable about medications helps in making informed decisions for client care, ultimately leading to better outcomes.
3. Understanding evidence-based practices enhances the nurse's ability to provide safe and effective medication management.
4. By accessing information on best practices, the nurse demonstrates a proactive approach to enhancing professional psychiatric nursing practice.
Summary:
Answer D is correct because it directly addresses the impact of advancements in psychopharmacology on client outcomes and professional psychiatric nursing practice by emphasizing the importance of staying informed and using evidence-based practices. Other choices do not specifically highlight the nurse's understanding of the impact of psychopharmacology advancements.
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Question 6
A 25-year-old female patient with brain metastases is considering her life expectancy after her most recent meeting with her oncologist. Based on the fact that the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, what is the nurses most appropriate action?
A. Promoting the patients functional status and ADLs
B. Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care
C. Ensuring that the family does not tell the patient that her condition is terminal
D. Promoting adherence to the prescribed medication regimen
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care. Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses, including managing symptoms and providing emotional support. In this case, since the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, palliative care would be most appropriate to help alleviate any pain or discomfort she may be experiencing and provide holistic support for her and her family.
A: Promoting the patient's functional status and ADLs may not be the priority if the patient's prognosis is terminal and she is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases.
C: Ensuring that the family does not tell the patient her condition is terminal goes against ethical principles of honesty and transparency in healthcare.
D: Promoting adherence to the prescribed medication regimen may not be relevant if the patient is not receiving active treatment for her brain metastases.
The highest priority for assessment by nurses caring for older adults who self-administer medications is
A. use of multiple drugs with anticholinergic effects.
B. overuse of medications for erectile dysfunction.
C. missed doses of medications for arthritis.
D. trading medications with acquaintances.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: use of multiple drugs with anticholinergic effects. This is the highest priority because anticholinergic medications are commonly prescribed to older adults and can lead to serious adverse effects such as confusion, memory issues, and falls. Nurses must assess for these effects to prevent harm.
Choice B (overuse of medications for erectile dysfunction) is not as high a priority as anticholinergic effects, as it is not as common and typically has less immediate serious consequences for older adults.
Choice C (missed doses of medications for arthritis) is important but not as critical as assessing for anticholinergic effects, as missed doses can generally be managed through education and adherence support.
Choice D (trading medications with acquaintances) is a serious concern but is not as high a priority as assessing for anticholinergic effects, as the immediate risks associated with anticholinergic medications are more severe.
Lisa, a 35-year-old practicing attorney and marathon runner, presents to the clinic with a complaint of irregular menses. She tells the nurse, 'My husband and I want to start a family but it hasn't happened yet. We stopped using birth control 6 months ago. Should we be concerned?' What is the nurse's best response?
A. Relax and it will happen.
B. No, infertility is the failure to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
C. Aging and extreme exercise regimens may impact fertility. You should address your concerns with your provider during today's visit.
D. Decreasing your exercise frequency and intensity will increase your chances of conceiving.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it acknowledges the potential impact of aging and extreme exercise on fertility, prompting further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Lisa's age and intense exercise regimen are important factors to consider since they can affect her ability to conceive. By addressing her concerns during the visit, the nurse can gather more information, assess potential fertility issues, and provide appropriate guidance or referrals.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses Lisa's concerns without addressing potential underlying issues. Choice B is incorrect as it sets a timeline for infertility diagnosis that is generally accepted after 1 year of unprotected intercourse for women under 35 years old, but Lisa's age and lifestyle may warrant earlier evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the issue by suggesting only a change in exercise routine as a solution without considering other potential factors impacting fertility.
An adult has a central venous line. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Complete blood count and electrolytes
B. Regular chest x rays to ensure proper placement of the central line
C. Continuous infusion of the solution at a keep vein open rate
D. Any signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage or puncture
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture are crucial in caring for a patient with a central venous line to prevent serious complications. Infections can lead to sepsis, air embolus can cause respiratory distress, and leakage/puncture can result in hemorrhage or damage to surrounding tissues.
A: While a complete blood count and electrolytes may be important for monitoring the patient's overall health, they are not specific to the central venous line care.
B: Regular chest x-rays are not necessary unless there are specific indications of line malposition or complications.
C: Continuous infusion at a keep-vein-open rate is a standard practice but does not address the critical aspects of central line care mentioned in option D.
Therefore, monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture is the most essential component of the plan of care for a patient with a central venous line.
A 36-year-old woman is beaten about the head and face and is brought to the local community hospital in full spinal immobilization. Her BP is 130/88, HR 70/min, and RR 18/min. Pulse oximetry indicated 98% while she was given 100% O2 via a non-rebreather mask. Her airway is clear. She has marked swellings on her face and several lacerations of her scalp that are not actively bleeding. She does not respond to verbal stimuli, but localizes to painful stimuli and opens her eyes. She moves all extremities equally. The remainder of her physical exam is normal. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital. After ensuring the patient's airway, the most appropriate course of action is to:
A. "Admit the patient to the hospital for observation"
B. Obtain x-ray of her facial bones prior to transfer
C. Obtain complete x-ray evaluation of the cervical spine
D. Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan.
Rationale:
1. The patient has sustained significant head trauma with neurological symptoms.
2. The patient is not responding to verbal stimuli but localizes to painful stimuli, indicating altered mental status.
3. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital, suggesting the need for transfer to a facility with neurosurgical capabilities.
4. Performing a CT-scan may delay necessary intervention, and in this case, immediate neurosurgical evaluation is crucial.
Summary:
A: Admitting the patient for observation is not appropriate as she requires specialized care.
B: Obtaining x-ray of facial bones is not a priority in this scenario and does not address the potential neurological injury.
C: While a complete x-ray evaluation of the cervical spine is important, neurosurgical evaluation takes precedence in this case to assess for possible intracranial injuries.
A catatonic patient admitted in a stuporous condition begins to demonstrate increased motor activity. During his assessment, the psychiatrist raises the patient's arm above his head and releases it. The patient maintains the position his arm was placed in, immobile in that position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers his arm. What symptom is demonstrated by this assessment technique?
A. Echopraxia
B. Waxy flexibility
C. Depersonalization
D. Thought withdrawal
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Waxy flexibility. This symptom is demonstrated by the patient's ability to maintain the position his arm was placed in, immobile, for an extended period of time. This is characteristic of catatonia, where individuals exhibit increased motor activity and abnormal posturing. Waxy flexibility refers to the tendency of catatonic patients to maintain positions that they are placed in by others, almost as if their limbs are made of wax and can be molded into different positions.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Echopraxia involves mimicking the movements of others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
C: Depersonalization refers to feeling detached from oneself, which is not evident in the patient's behavior during the assessment.
D: Thought withdrawal is a symptom of schizophrenia where thoughts are believed to be removed from one's mind by an external force, which is not relevant to the patient's motor behavior in this case.
A nurse changes a client’s wound dressing according to the protocol outlined by the health care agency. What type of nursing intervention is this?
A. Independent intervention
B. Dependent intervention
C. Interdependent intervention
D. Collaborative intervention
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Interdependent intervention. This type of nursing intervention involves collaboration with other healthcare professionals to provide holistic care. In this scenario, the nurse is following a protocol set by the health care agency, which likely involves input and guidance from various team members. The nurse's actions require coordination and communication with others to ensure the best outcome for the client.
Choice A (Independent intervention) would involve actions that the nurse can perform autonomously without requiring direction from others. Choice B (Dependent intervention) would require an order or prescription from a healthcare provider for the nurse to carry out. Choice D (Collaborative intervention) involves working together with other healthcare professionals on a specific aspect of care, but in this case, the nurse is primarily following a set protocol without necessarily actively collaborating with others during the task.
Afamilywhosereligionlimitstheuseofsomeformsoftechnologyisadmittingtheirgrandfatherto youurunit.Theyexpressskepticismaboutthefactthatyouarerecordingtheadmissiondataonalaptop computer.Whatwouldbeyourbestresponsetotheirconcerns? N
A. Itsbeenfoundthatusingcomputersimprovesourpatientscareandreducestheirhealthcarecosts.
B. Wehavefoundthatitiseasiertokeeptrackofourpatientsinformationthiswayratherthanwith penandpaper.
C. Youll find that all the hospitals are doing this now, and that writing information with a pen is rar
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why answer B is correct:
1. Privacy and accuracy: Storing patient information on a computer allows for better organization and security compared to pen and paper.
2. Accessibility: Electronic records can be easily accessed and updated by authorized personnel.
3. Efficiency: Retrieving and sharing patient data is quicker and more efficient with digital records.
4. Compliance: Using electronic health records aligns with modern healthcare standards and regulations.
5. Patient care: By maintaining accurate and easily accessible records, healthcare providers can deliver better and more coordinated care.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Focuses on patient care and cost reduction, not directly addressing the family's concerns about technology use.
C: Appeals to common practice and technology trends, but does not address the family's specific concerns about their beliefs.
D: Incomplete answer, no rationale provided.
Lisa, a 35-year-old practicing attorney and marathon runner, presents to the clinic with a complaint of irregular menses. She tells the nurse, 'My husband and I want to start a family but it hasn't happened yet. We stopped using birth control 6 months ago. Should we be concerned?' What is the nurse's best response?
A. Relax and it will happen.
B. No, infertility is the failure to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
C. Aging and extreme exercise regimens may impact fertility. You should address your concerns with your provider during today's visit.
D. Decreasing your exercise frequency and intensity will increase your chances of conceiving.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it acknowledges the potential impact of aging and extreme exercise on fertility, prompting further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Lisa's age and intense exercise regimen are important factors to consider since they can affect her ability to conceive. By addressing her concerns during the visit, the nurse can gather more information, assess potential fertility issues, and provide appropriate guidance or referrals.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses Lisa's concerns without addressing potential underlying issues. Choice B is incorrect as it sets a timeline for infertility diagnosis that is generally accepted after 1 year of unprotected intercourse for women under 35 years old, but Lisa's age and lifestyle may warrant earlier evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the issue by suggesting only a change in exercise routine as a solution without considering other potential factors impacting fertility.
What is the best description of the history of gynecologic care in the United States over the past century?
A. Reproductive health care has been under control of persons AFAB since the 1900s.
B. The health-care system has always been fair to persons AFAB with regard to shared decision making.
C. Activist groups are fighting sexism in health care.
D. Researchers had to stop including persons AFAB in pharmacologic research trials.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because activist groups have played a significant role in fighting sexism in gynecologic care over the past century. These groups have advocated for better healthcare access, reproductive rights, and gender equality. This is supported by historical evidence of movements such as the women's rights movement and advocacy for reproductive justice.
Choice A is incorrect as reproductive health care has not always been under the control of persons assigned female at birth (AFAB) since the 1900s, as there have been significant disparities and challenges faced by individuals in accessing quality care. Choice B is incorrect as the healthcare system has not always been fair in shared decision-making with persons AFAB, with historical examples of paternalistic practices. Choice D is incorrect as excluding persons AFAB from research trials would be unethical and discriminatory, which is not reflective of the overall history of gynecologic care.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 36 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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