RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 36

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RN exams clinical judgment practice questions set 36

You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five clinical judgment questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse’s next action?

  1. A. Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
  2. B. Note the assessment finding in the infant’s chart.
  3. C. Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
  4. D. Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.

The correct answer is A. The nurse should assess for other abnormalities of the infant because the presence of two vessels in the umbilical cord (a condition known as a two-vessel cord) may be associated with other congenital anomalies. By assessing for other abnormalities, the nurse can identify any potential issues that may require immediate intervention or further evaluation. This proactive approach ensures the newborn's well-being and allows for timely management of any additional concerns. Summary of other choices: B: Noting the finding in the chart is important but does not address the immediate need to assess for other abnormalities. C: Notifying the health care provider is important, but assessing for other abnormalities should be the nurse's initial priority. D: Calling for the neonatal resuscitation team is not necessary based solely on the presence of a two-vessel cord; further assessment is needed before determining the need for resuscitation.

Question 2

A nurse is teaching a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. A. "This test will confirm fetal lung maturity ".
  2. B. "This test will determine adequacy of placental perfusion".
  3. C. "This test will detect fetal infection".
  4. D. "This test will predict maternal readiness for labor".
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — "This test will determine adequacy of placental perfusion".

The correct answer is B: "This test will determine adequacy of placental perfusion." The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. It helps determine if the placenta is providing enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. This information is crucial in assessing the overall health and viability of the fetus. A: "This test will confirm fetal lung maturity" - This statement is incorrect because the non-stress test does not assess fetal lung maturity. That is usually done through tests like amniocentesis. C: "This test will detect fetal infection" - This statement is incorrect because the non-stress test does not detect fetal infection. Other tests like amniocentesis or blood tests are used for this purpose. D: "This test will predict maternal readiness for labor" - This statement is incorrect as the non-stress test focuses on fetal well-being and does not predict maternal readiness for labor.

Question 3

A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a piece of glass and was sent to a clinic for an anti-tetanus serum injection. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock, the Besredka desensitization method was applied. What mechanism underlies this method?

  1. A. Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells
  2. B. Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators
  3. C. Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance
  4. D. Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG synthesis
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells

The correct choice is A: Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells. The Besredka desensitization method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the allergen to induce tolerance and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the allergen to IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, which prevents the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators that trigger allergic reactions. This desensitization process helps the immune system become less reactive to the allergen over time. Incorrect choices: B: Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators - This choice does not reflect the mechanism of the Besredka desensitization method, which involves binding to IgE on mast cells. C: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance - While this may sound plausible, the Besredka method specifically targets the IgE-mast cell interaction. D: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG synthesis - While IgG antibodies may play a role in desensitization, the

Question 4

Which of the following should the nurse consider when planning care for a client with antisocial personality disorder? Clients with antisocial personality disorder:

  1. A. Demand constant attention
  2. B. Tolerate frustration well
  3. C. Have well-developed superegos
  4. D. Are initially often charming
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Are initially often charming

The correct answer is D: Are initially often charming. This is because individuals with antisocial personality disorder often exhibit charm and charisma to manipulate others for personal gain. This behavior is known as "charm offensive" and can be used to deceive and exploit others. This initial charm can make it difficult for others to recognize their true motives and manipulative nature. Incorrect options: A: Demand constant attention - Individuals with antisocial personality disorder may appear self-centered and manipulative but not necessarily demand constant attention. B: Tolerate frustration well - Clients with antisocial personality disorder often have difficulty managing frustration and may resort to aggressive or impulsive behavior. C: Have well-developed superegos - Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically lack empathy and have a weak or underdeveloped superego, leading to a disregard for social norms and the rights of others.

Question 5

Which of the following actions demonstrates that the nurse has an understanding of the impact that continued advancements in psychopharmacology has on both client outcomes and professional psychiatric nursing practice?

  1. A. Working towards achieving advanced practice nursing credentials in psychiatric nursing
  2. B. Stressing the importance of medication therapy compliance with each client upon discharge
  3. C. Participating in interdisciplinary treatment teams as a means of staying current regarding the latest clinical treatments and guidelines
  4. D. Accessing information on the best evidence-based practices regarding the psychopharmacology medications being prescribed to his or her clients
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Accessing information on the best evidence-based practices regarding the psychopharmacology medications being prescribed to his or her clients

Step-by-step rationale for why Answer D is correct: 1. Accessing information on evidence-based practices shows the nurse's commitment to staying informed about psychopharmacology advancements. 2. Being knowledgeable about medications helps in making informed decisions for client care, ultimately leading to better outcomes. 3. Understanding evidence-based practices enhances the nurse's ability to provide safe and effective medication management. 4. By accessing information on best practices, the nurse demonstrates a proactive approach to enhancing professional psychiatric nursing practice. Summary: Answer D is correct because it directly addresses the impact of advancements in psychopharmacology on client outcomes and professional psychiatric nursing practice by emphasizing the importance of staying informed and using evidence-based practices. Other choices do not specifically highlight the nurse's understanding of the impact of psychopharmacology advancements.

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Question 6

A 25-year-old female patient with brain metastases is considering her life expectancy after her most recent meeting with her oncologist. Based on the fact that the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, what is the nurses most appropriate action?

  1. A. Promoting the patients functional status and ADLs
  2. B. Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care
  3. C. Ensuring that the family does not tell the patient that her condition is terminal
  4. D. Promoting adherence to the prescribed medication regimen
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Question 7

The highest priority for assessment by nurses caring for older adults who self-administer medications is

  1. A. use of multiple drugs with anticholinergic effects.
  2. B. overuse of medications for erectile dysfunction.
  3. C. missed doses of medications for arthritis.
  4. D. trading medications with acquaintances.
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Question 8

Lisa, a 35-year-old practicing attorney and marathon runner, presents to the clinic with a complaint of irregular menses. She tells the nurse, 'My husband and I want to start a family but it hasn't happened yet. We stopped using birth control 6 months ago. Should we be concerned?' What is the nurse's best response?

  1. A. Relax and it will happen.
  2. B. No, infertility is the failure to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
  3. C. Aging and extreme exercise regimens may impact fertility. You should address your concerns with your provider during today's visit.
  4. D. Decreasing your exercise frequency and intensity will increase your chances of conceiving.
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Question 9

An adult has a central venous line. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?

  1. A. Complete blood count and electrolytes
  2. B. Regular chest x rays to ensure proper placement of the central line
  3. C. Continuous infusion of the solution at a keep vein open rate
  4. D. Any signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage or puncture
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Question 10

A 36-year-old woman is beaten about the head and face and is brought to the local community hospital in full spinal immobilization. Her BP is 130/88, HR 70/min, and RR 18/min. Pulse oximetry indicated 98% while she was given 100% O2 via a non-rebreather mask. Her airway is clear. She has marked swellings on her face and several lacerations of her scalp that are not actively bleeding. She does not respond to verbal stimuli, but localizes to painful stimuli and opens her eyes. She moves all extremities equally. The remainder of her physical exam is normal. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital. After ensuring the patient's airway, the most appropriate course of action is to:

  1. A. "Admit the patient to the hospital for observation"
  2. B. Obtain x-ray of her facial bones prior to transfer
  3. C. Obtain complete x-ray evaluation of the cervical spine
  4. D. Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan
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Question 11

A catatonic patient admitted in a stuporous condition begins to demonstrate increased motor activity. During his assessment, the psychiatrist raises the patient's arm above his head and releases it. The patient maintains the position his arm was placed in, immobile in that position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers his arm. What symptom is demonstrated by this assessment technique?

  1. A. Echopraxia
  2. B. Waxy flexibility
  3. C. Depersonalization
  4. D. Thought withdrawal
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Question 12

A nurse changes a client’s wound dressing according to the protocol outlined by the health care agency. What type of nursing intervention is this?

  1. A. Independent intervention
  2. B. Dependent intervention
  3. C. Interdependent intervention
  4. D. Collaborative intervention
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Question 13

Afamilywhosereligionlimitstheuseofsomeformsoftechnologyisadmittingtheirgrandfatherto youurunit.Theyexpressskepticismaboutthefactthatyouarerecordingtheadmissiondataonalaptop computer.Whatwouldbeyourbestresponsetotheirconcerns? N

  1. A. Itsbeenfoundthatusingcomputersimprovesourpatientscareandreducestheirhealthcarecosts.
  2. B. Wehavefoundthatitiseasiertokeeptrackofourpatientsinformationthiswayratherthanwith penandpaper.
  3. C. Youll find that all the hospitals are doing this now, and that writing information with a pen is rar
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Question 14

Lisa, a 35-year-old practicing attorney and marathon runner, presents to the clinic with a complaint of irregular menses. She tells the nurse, 'My husband and I want to start a family but it hasn't happened yet. We stopped using birth control 6 months ago. Should we be concerned?' What is the nurse's best response?

  1. A. Relax and it will happen.
  2. B. No, infertility is the failure to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
  3. C. Aging and extreme exercise regimens may impact fertility. You should address your concerns with your provider during today's visit.
  4. D. Decreasing your exercise frequency and intensity will increase your chances of conceiving.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

What is the best description of the history of gynecologic care in the United States over the past century?

  1. A. Reproductive health care has been under control of persons AFAB since the 1900s.
  2. B. The health-care system has always been fair to persons AFAB with regard to shared decision making.
  3. C. Activist groups are fighting sexism in health care.
  4. D. Researchers had to stop including persons AFAB in pharmacologic research trials.
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About these RN exams clinical judgment questions

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 36 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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