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RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 142

RN exams · clinical judgment

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions set 142

You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five clinical judgment questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues?

  1. A. Impaired Physical Mobility
  2. B. Impaired Role Performance
  3. C. Ineffective Role Performance
  4. D. Powerlessness
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Impaired Physical Mobility

The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues is "A: Impaired Physical Mobility." This diagnosis accurately reflects the client's limited ability to move due to the disease's impact on coordination and muscle control. Impaired Physical Mobility addresses the specific issue of gait problems commonly seen in Parkinson's patients. Choice B, "Impaired Role Performance," does not directly address the physical limitations caused by the disease. Choice C, "Ineffective Role Performance," focuses more on the client's inability to fulfill societal roles rather than the physical aspect of gait issues. Choice D, "Powerlessness," does not capture the primary concern of impaired movement and mobility in this scenario.

Question 2

Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

  1. A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
  2. B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
  3. C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
  4. D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. High levels of oxygen over a prolonged period can lead to oxygen toxicity. 2. Oxygen toxicity can cause lung damage and respiratory distress. 3. To prevent oxygen toxicity, it is crucial to monitor and limit the duration and amount of oxygen administered. 4. Therefore, avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods is the most effective intervention to prevent oxygen toxicity. Summary of other choices: B: Administering a sedative does not address the root cause of oxygen toxicity and can mask symptoms. C: Removing the nasal cannula at night can lead to hypoxia and is not a safe practice. D: Running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity and is not a recognized intervention.

Question 3

After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. Nurse Celestina suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?

  1. A. Page an anesthesiologist immediately and prepare to intubate the client.
  2. B. Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary.
  3. C. Administer the antidote for penicillin, as prescribed, and continue to monitor the client's vital signs.
  4. D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and begin to infuse I.V. fluids as ordered.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary.

The correct answer is B: Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary. In anaphylactic shock, immediate administration of epinephrine is crucial to reverse the severe allergic reaction. Intubation may be necessary to maintain airway patency in case of severe respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because paging an anesthesiologist and preparing for intubation should not be the first action; administering epinephrine takes precedence. Choice C is incorrect as administering an antidote for penicillin would not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylactic shock. Choice D is incorrect as inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids are not the priority actions in managing anaphylactic shock.

Question 4

The following structures are felt during bimanual pelvic examination

  1. A. Ovary
  2. B. Uterus
  3. C. Fallopian Tube
  4. D. Cervix
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Uterus

The correct answer is B: Uterus. During a bimanual pelvic examination, the examiner can palpate the uterus between their fingers. The uterus is a key structure that can be felt for its size, shape, and position. The ovaries, fallopian tubes, and cervix are not typically felt during a bimanual exam as they are located deeper within the pelvis and are not easily palpable. Palpating the ovaries directly is not typically part of a routine pelvic examination due to their small size and position behind the uterus. The fallopian tubes are also not typically palpable during a bimanual exam as they are located laterally to the uterus. The cervix may be felt during the exam, but it is not the main structure that is typically palpated during a bimanual pelvic examination.

Question 5

A team of community health nurses has partnered with the staff at a youth drop-ins center to address some of the health promotion needs of teenagers. The nurses have identified a need to address nutritional assessment and intervention. Which of the following most often occurs during the teen years? e

  1. A. Lifelong eating habits are acquire
  2. B. t
  3. C. Peer pressure influences growth. o
  4. D. BMI is determine
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Lifelong eating habits are acquire

The correct answer is A: Lifelong eating habits are acquired. During the teen years, individuals are more likely to establish and solidify their eating habits, which can have long-lasting effects on their health. This period is crucial for developing a healthy relationship with food and making informed choices. Choice B is incorrect because it is incomplete. Choice C is incorrect because peer pressure can influence behaviors, but it is not the most common occurrence during the teen years in terms of nutritional assessment and intervention. Choice D is incorrect because BMI (Body Mass Index) can fluctuate during the teen years due to growth and development, but it is not the most common occurrence related to addressing nutritional needs in teenagers.

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Question 6

Which dietary instruction is most important for a client with renal disease?

  1. A. Avoid all protein-rich foods.
  2. B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day.
  3. C. Increase potassium intake to prevent weakness.
  4. D. Eat small, frequent meals high in carbohydrates.
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Question 7

Oxygen-rich blood is pumped from the left ventricle via the

  1. A. Right ventricle
  2. B. Aorta
  3. C. Capillaries
  4. D. Veins
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Question 8

A nurse is describing the hormones involved in the menstrual cycle to a group of young adult women who are planning to get pregnant. The nurse determines the teaching was successful when the group identifies the follicle-stimulating hormone as being secreted by the:

  1. A. hypothalamus
  2. B. anterior pituitary gland
  3. C. ovaries
  4. D. corpus luteum
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Question 9

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder asks, What part of my brain controls my emotions? Which nursing response is appropriate?

  1. A. The occipital lobe governs perceptions, judging them as positive or negative.
  2. B. The parietal lobe has been linked to depression.
  3. C. The medulla regulates key biological and psychological activities.
  4. D. The limbic system is largely responsible for one's emotional state.
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Question 10

A nurse is caring for a client who has severe hypertension and is receiving nitroprusside. What action should the nurse take?

  1. A. Administer oxygen and assess the client's response.
  2. B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
  3. C. Limit light exposure to the IV infusion.
  4. D. Attach an inline filter to the IV tubing.
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Question 11

A client comes to a community clinic after being informed by a sexual partner of possible recent exposure to syphilis. The nurse will examine the client for which clinical manifestation of syphilis in the primary stage?

  1. A. Chancre
  2. B. Copper-colored rash involving the trunk and extremities
  3. C. Flulike symptoms
  4. D. Condyloma lata
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Question 12

Which response indicates that the student has evaluated a 3-year-old's behavior appropriately?

  1. A. "This child's behavior must be evaluated according to developmental norms."
  2. B. "This child has symptoms of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)."
  3. C. "This child has symptoms of the early stages of ASD."
  4. D. "This child's behavior indicates possible symptoms of ODD."
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Question 13

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation. What is the priority action?

  1. A. Check the ventilator settings.
  2. B. Perform a chest x-ray.
  3. C. Increase the patient's fluid intake.
  4. D. Monitor the ventilator settings.
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Question 14

Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?

  1. A. Increased night vision
  2. B. A dark retinal background
  3. C. Increased photosensitivity
  4. D. Narrowed palpebral fissures
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Question 15

The nurse is caring for a patient who is at risk for infection. Which action by the nurse indicates correct understanding about standard precautions?

  1. A. Teaches the patient about good nutrition.
  2. B. Disposes of an uncapped needle in the designated container.
  3. C. Wears eyewear when emptying the urinary drainage bag.
  4. D. Dons gloves when wearing artificial nails.
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About these RN exams clinical judgment questions

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 142 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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