RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 91
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 91
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
If a radioimmunoassay is properly conducted and the amount of radioactive hormone bound to antibody is low, this would indicate which of the following?
A. Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high
B. Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are low
C. More antibody is needed
D. Less radioactive hormone is needed
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high
The correct answer is A: Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high. When the amount of radioactive hormone bound to the antibody is low in a radioimmunoassay, it indicates that there is a high concentration of non-radioactive, endogenous hormone present in the sample competing for binding sites on the antibody. This competition results in fewer radioactive hormones binding to the antibody. Therefore, the low radioactive hormone binding suggests an abundance of non-radioactive hormone in the sample.
Choice B is incorrect because low levels of radioactive hormone binding do not indicate low plasma levels of endogenous hormone. Choice C is incorrect as more antibody wouldn't affect the binding of radioactive hormone if endogenous hormone levels are high. Choice D is incorrect because the amount of radioactive hormone needed is not related to the binding observed in the assay.
Question 2
The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of COPD about pursed-lip breathing. What is the primary benefit of this technique?
A. Increases oxygen intake.
B. Reduces airway resistance.
C. Slows the respiratory rate.
D. Prevents hyperventilation.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Reduces airway resistance.
The correct answer is B: Reduces airway resistance. Pursed-lip breathing helps to slow down the exhalation process, which in turn reduces the amount of air trapped in the lungs and decreases airway resistance. This technique promotes better oxygen exchange and helps the client breathe more efficiently.
A: Increases oxygen intake - Pursed-lip breathing does not directly increase oxygen intake but rather improves the efficiency of oxygen exchange by reducing airway resistance.
C: Slows the respiratory rate - While pursed-lip breathing may slow down the breathing pattern, the primary benefit is the reduction of airway resistance, not solely slowing the respiratory rate.
D: Prevents hyperventilation - Pursed-lip breathing can help prevent hyperventilation by promoting more controlled breathing, but the primary benefit is the reduction of airway resistance for clients with COPD.
Question 3
Which of the following is a dimension for characterizing behavioural consequences?
A. immediate or delayed
B. short-term or long-term
C. limited or extensive
D. compliance or performance
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — short-term or long-term
The correct answer is B: short-term or long-term. This dimension characterizes behavioral consequences based on the time frame over which the consequences are observed. Short-term consequences have immediate effects, while long-term consequences have effects that manifest over an extended period. This dimension is important in understanding the impact of behaviors and helps in predicting future behavior patterns.
A: immediate or delayed - This dimension focuses on the timing of consequences rather than the duration, making it different from the dimension in the question.
C: limited or extensive - This dimension describes the scope or magnitude of consequences, not the time frame over which they occur.
D: compliance or performance - This dimension pertains to different aspects of behavior (following rules vs. achieving outcomes) rather than the duration of consequences.
Question 4
A 29-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for evaluation of a headache. The tightening sensation is located all over the head and is of moderate intensity. It used to last minutes, but this time it has lasted for 5 days. He denies photophobia and nausea. He spends several hours each day at a computer monitor/keyboard. He has tried over-the-counter medication; it has dulled the pain but not taken it away. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?
A. Tension
B. Migraine
C. Cluster
D. Analgesic rebound
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Tension
The description provided fits the criteria for tension-type headache. Tension-type headaches are typically described as a mild to moderate, dull, band-like pressure or tightness around the head. They can last from minutes to days and are often triggered by stress, anxiety, poor posture, or prolonged computer use. The absence of symptoms like photophobia and nausea, along with the response to over-the-counter medication, further support the diagnosis of tension-type headache in this case. Other headache types such as migraines or cluster headaches usually present with additional symptoms like nausea, photophobia, or tearing of the eye, which are not mentioned in this scenario. Analgesic rebound headaches typically occur in individuals who overuse pain medications, leading to worsening headaches when the medication wears off, but this patient's history does not suggest such misuse.
Question 5
A patient who was admitted to the delivery room undergoes an ultrasound, which reveals that the sacrum is the presenting part; the lie is longitudinal, with both the hips and knees in flexion. Which describes this fetal presentation?
A. Cephalic
B. Complete breech
C. Frank breech
D. Footling breech
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Frank breech
The correct answer is A: Cephalic. In this presentation, the sacrum is the presenting part, indicating the baby is head down, which is characteristic of a cephalic presentation. Additionally, the lie is longitudinal, further supporting the cephalic presentation. The flexion of both hips and knees is also consistent with the normal positioning of a baby in the cephalic presentation.
Summary of other choices:
B: Complete breech - In a complete breech presentation, the baby is bottom down with both hips and knees flexed, but the sacrum would not be the presenting part.
C: Frank breech - In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are the presenting part with the legs extended and the feet near the head.
D: Footling breech - In a footling breech presentation, one or both feet are the presenting part, with the hips and knees extended, not flexed as described in the scenario.
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Question 6
A patient with schizophrenia has been stabilized in the Crisis Center and is about to be discharged. He will be living with his family, but the family knows nothing about the patient's illness, its treatment, or the role they can play in his recovery. Which activity would be most beneficial for the family to attend?
A. Psychoanalytic group
B. Psychoeducational group
C. Individual counseling
D. Family therapy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Psychoeducational group. This option is most beneficial as it will provide the family with education about schizophrenia, its treatment, and the role they can play in the patient's recovery. This will help the family better understand the illness, how to support the patient, and how to communicate effectively.
Explanation:
1. Psychoanalytic group (A) focuses on exploring unconscious thoughts and emotions, which may not be as practical or helpful for educating the family about schizophrenia.
2. Individual counseling (C) may not involve the family as a whole and may not provide the necessary education and support for the family unit.
3. Family therapy (D) could be beneficial, but psychoeducational group specifically targets providing knowledge and skills needed to support the patient's recovery, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
The nurse is providing prenatal education to a pregnant patient at 24 weeks gestation. Which of the following topics should the nurse prioritize during this visit?
A. Signs and symptoms of preterm labor and when to call the healthcare provider
B. Breastfeeding techniques and infant care
C. Postpartum care and family planning options
D. Managing pregnancy-related fatigue and morning sickness
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Signs and symptoms of preterm labor and when to call the healthcare provider. This is the most crucial topic to prioritize at 24 weeks gestation because preterm labor can have serious consequences for both the mother and the baby. By educating the patient on the signs and symptoms of preterm labor, such as abdominal cramping, backache, or vaginal bleeding, the nurse can empower the patient to recognize these warning signs early and seek prompt medical attention, potentially preventing preterm birth.
Choice B: Breastfeeding techniques and infant care, and Choice C: Postpartum care and family planning options are important topics but are more relevant for later stages of pregnancy or after delivery. Choice D: Managing pregnancy-related fatigue and morning sickness is also important but is generally not as urgent as being aware of signs of preterm labor.
A. Dry vagina, Oedema of the cervix, Caput succedaneum
B. Plenty amniotic fluid, Hot/dry vagina, meconium stained liquor
C. Meconium stained liquor, Hot/dry vagina, Diluted urine
D. Caput succedaneum, Oedema of the cervix, plenty amniotic fluid
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because signs of obstructed labor include a dry vagina due to prolonged pressure, oedema of the cervix due to prolonged contractions, and caput succedaneum which is swelling of the baby's scalp from prolonged pressure.
Choice B is incorrect because plenty of amniotic fluid is not a sign of obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Meconium-stained liquor can be a sign of fetal distress, but not specifically obstructed labor.
Choice C is incorrect because meconium-stained liquor is a sign of fetal distress, not necessarily obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Diluted urine is not a typical sign of obstructed labor.
Choice D is incorrect because while caput succedaneum is a sign of obstructed labor, oedema of the cervix is more indicative of obstructed labor than plenty of amni
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of stroke. The patient is experiencing slurred speech and weakness. What is the priority action?
A. Perform a neurological exam.
B. Notify the healthcare provider.
C. Administer insulin therapy.
D. Administer IV fluids and monitor blood glucose.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Perform a neurological exam. This is the priority action because the patient's symptoms of slurred speech and weakness indicate a potential stroke recurrence. By performing a neurological exam, the nurse can assess the patient's current neurological status, determine the severity of the symptoms, and identify any signs of worsening condition or complications. This information is crucial for timely intervention and management of the patient's condition.
Summary:
B: Notifying the healthcare provider can be important but assessing the patient's neurological status is the immediate priority.
C: Administering insulin therapy is not indicated for slurred speech and weakness in a patient with a history of stroke.
D: Administering IV fluids and monitoring blood glucose is not the priority action in this situation; neurological assessment takes precedence.
The nurse is answering the phone in the OB-GYN clinic. The person asks, 'I am a lesbian. Can an OB-GYN provider care for me?' What is the nurse's best response?
A. All LGBTQIA+ persons are welcome and can be treated by an OB-GYN provider.'
B. We can see you if you will be the person in the relationship that will get pregnant.'
C. We suggest you see a provider that specializes in LGBTQIA+ persons.'
D. Our OB-GYN provider can give you gynecologic care but not pregnancy care.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it demonstrates inclusivity and respect for the individual's identity. The response affirms that all LGBTQIA+ persons are welcome and can receive care from an OB-GYN provider, promoting a safe and supportive environment. This answer prioritizes patient-centered care and emphasizes the provider's commitment to serving diverse populations.
Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the individual's role in a relationship determines their eligibility for care, which is discriminatory. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests the individual needs a specialized provider solely based on their sexual orientation, which is not necessary for routine gynecologic care. Choice D is incorrect as it limits the scope of care based on the individual's sexual orientation, which goes against ethical principles of providing comprehensive healthcare to all individuals.
According to the Workplace Bullying Institute, nurses are also exposed to this type of behavior within their professional environment. In teaching the possibility to an incoming graduate nurse, you know that the nurse understands when he or she includes which of the following as abusive conduct? (Select all that apply)
A. Threats
B. Humiliation
C. Intimidation
D. Physical abuse
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Threats. Threats are considered abusive conduct in the context of workplace bullying. Nurses may be subjected to threats that create a hostile work environment. Threats can instill fear and distress in the victim, affecting their well-being and performance.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Humiliation - While humiliation is a form of abuse, the question specifically asks about abusive conduct in the context of workplace bullying for nurses.
C: Intimidation - Intimidation is another form of abusive behavior, but the question focuses on identifying abusive conduct in the workplace environment for nurses.
D: Physical abuse - While physical abuse is a serious issue, the question pertains to identifying abusive conduct within the professional environment for nurses, where physical abuse may not be as common as other forms of bullying behavior.
C. for an ovum to be released from a female’s ovary each month
D. for teens to become adults
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because sexual feelings are indeed necessary for reproduction to occur. Sexual arousal and desire play a vital role in initiating the process of conception and ensuring the continuation of the human species. Without sexual feelings, procreation would not be possible.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Sexual feelings are not necessary for the heart and lungs to function properly. These bodily functions are regulated by the autonomic nervous system, not by sexual arousal.
C: While sexual feelings can influence the release of an ovum during ovulation, they are not the sole factor. Ovulation can occur without sexual arousal.
D: Sexual feelings are not a requirement for teenagers to become adults. Puberty and the physical and emotional changes that come with it mark the transition from adolescence to adulthood, not sexual feelings.
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
A. Posttrauma syndrome
B. Constipation
C. Acute pain
D. Anxiety
Correct answer:
The most pertinent nursing diagnosis for the patient with a right femur fracture stabilized in a full leg cast is "Acute pain" (Choice C). The rationale for this is as follows:
1. The patient is experiencing moderate discomfort due to the fracture and immobilization in the cast, indicating a need for pain management.
2. Acute pain is a priority in this situation as it can impact the patient's comfort, mobility, and overall recovery.
3. Managing pain effectively is crucial for promoting healing, preventing complications, and improving the patient's quality of life.
4. Posttrauma syndrome (Choice A) may be a consideration in the long term but is not the immediate priority. Constipation (Choice B) is not the most pertinent nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Anxiety (Choice D) may be present but addressing pain is more urgent and directly related to the patient's current condition.
Choose the condition th?a?t exhibits blood values with a low pH and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by low pH and low plasma bicarbonate.
2. In this condition, there is an excess of acids or a loss of bicarbonate.
3. The kidneys are unable to adequately excrete acids or retain bicarbonate.
4. This leads to a decrease in bicarbonate levels and a decrease in pH.
5. Respiratory acidosis (A) is characterized by low pH and high CO2 levels.
6. Respiratory alkalosis (C) is characterized by high pH and low CO2 levels.
7. Metabolic alkalosis (D) is characterized by high pH and high bicarbonate levels.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as it describes a condition with high CO2 levels.
- Choice C is incorrect as it describes a condition with high pH.
- Choice D is incorrect as it describes a condition with high bicarbonate levels.
- Choice B is correct as it accurately describes the characteristics of a condition with low pH
Dr. George predicted that positive reinforcement would increase prosocial behavior in preschoolers. Dr. George's prediction is an example of a __________.
A. theory
B. research question
C. hypothesis
D. research design
Correct answer:
Dr. George's prediction that positive reinforcement would increase prosocial behavior in preschoolers is an example of a hypothesis. A hypothesis is a specific, testable prediction about the relationship between variables based on existing knowledge or theories. In this case, Dr. George is making a prediction about the effect of positive reinforcement on prosocial behavior, which can be tested through research. Choice A, 'theory,' is incorrect because a theory is a broader explanation that integrates a range of findings and observations. Choice B, 'research question,' is incorrect as it refers to an inquiry that asks about the relationship between variables but lacks the specificity and testability of a hypothesis. Choice D, 'research design,' is incorrect as it pertains to the overall strategy or plan for conducting a research study, not the specific prediction Dr. George made.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 91 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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