Nursier
Register
Log in Register Register

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 137

RN exams · clinical judgment

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions set 137

You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five clinical judgment questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A patient with bacterial pneumonia has coarse crackles and thick sputum. Which action should the nurse plan to promote airway clearance?

  1. A. Restrict oral fluids during the day.
  2. B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing technique.
  3. C. Help the patient to splint the chest when coughing.
  4. D. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal O2 cannula.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Help the patient to splint the chest when coughing.

The correct answer is C: Help the patient to splint the chest when coughing. This action supports the patient in effectively clearing thick sputum by providing external support to the chest wall during the coughing effort. Splinting the chest can help increase the force of the cough and improve the effectiveness of clearing secretions. A: Restricting oral fluids during the day is incorrect as hydration is important in thinning sputum and promoting airway clearance. B: Encouraging pursed-lip breathing technique is helpful for some respiratory conditions, but it may not be as effective in promoting airway clearance in this case. D: Encouraging the patient to wear the nasal O2 cannula is important for oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.

Question 2

It is important for the nurse teaching the patient regarding secobarbital to include which information about the drug?

  1. A. It is a short-acting drug that may cause one to awaken early in the morning.
  2. B. It is an intermediate-acting drug that frequently causes rapid eye movement rebound.
  3. C. It is an intermediate-acting drug that frequently causes a hangover effect.
  4. D. It is a long-acting drug that is frequently associated with dependence.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — It is an intermediate-acting drug that frequently causes a hangover effect.

Rationale for Correct Answer C: The nurse should include information about secobarbital causing a hangover effect because it is an important side effect to be aware of. This effect may lead to drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired cognitive function the morning after taking the drug, impacting the patient's ability to function normally. Educating the patient about this potential consequence is crucial for promoting safe and effective medication use. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Incorrect because secobarbital is an intermediate-acting drug, not short-acting. B: Incorrect because rapid eye movement rebound is not a common side effect of secobarbital. D: Incorrect because secobarbital is not a long-acting drug and is not typically associated with dependence.

Question 3

In assessing sexual maturity levels, which tool would you expect to use?

  1. A. Denver II Developmental Screening
  2. B. Tanner staging
  3. C. Antibody testing
  4. D. Nursing process
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Tanner staging

The correct answer is B: Tanner staging. Tanner staging is a tool specifically used to assess sexual maturity in adolescents based on the development of secondary sexual characteristics. The Tanner scale ranges from stage 1 (prepubertal) to stage 5 (adult maturity). This tool helps healthcare providers evaluate the physical development and sexual maturation of individuals. Choice A, the Denver II Developmental Screening, is used to assess developmental milestones in children. Choice C, antibody testing, is a diagnostic tool used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in the blood. Choice D, the nursing process, is a systematic method that nurses use to deliver patient-centered care, involving assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

Question 4

During fibergastroscopy a patient with ulcer disease of the stomach, the mucosal biopsy is taken from the area of an ulcer. Impression smear is prepared from biopsy material and stained by Gram method; the rest of biopsy material is tested for urease activity. Microscopy of the impression smear revealed gram- negative spiral-shaped microorganisms, urease activity test is positive. What bacteria were detected?

  1. A. Helicobacter pylori
  2. B. Campilobacter jejuni
  3. C. Treponema pallidum
  4. D. Spirilla minor
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Helicobacter pylori

The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. Rationale: 1. Gram-negative spiral-shaped microorganisms match the morphology of Helicobacter pylori. 2. Positive urease activity is a characteristic feature of Helicjsonacter pylori. 3. Helicobacter pylori is specifically associated with gastric ulcers and is a common pathogen in the gastrointestinal tract. Summary: Choice B, Campilobacter jejuni, is a gram-negative curved bacterium but is not typically associated with gastric ulcers or urease activity. Choice C, Treponema pallidum, is a spirochete bacterium causing syphilis, which is not related to gastric ulcers. Choice D, Spirilla minor, is a generic term for spiral-shaped bacteria and is not a specific pathogen associated with gastric ulcers or urease activity.

Question 5

An 11-year-old child stays home from school to care for his siblings while his mother works, is demeaned by his father, and has negative self-perceptions. Which intervention(s) would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

  1. A. Crisis intervention
  2. B. Create a safety plan.
  3. C. Refer to family therapy.
  4. D. Refer for case management.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Crisis intervention

The correct answer is A: Crisis intervention. This is appropriate because the child is experiencing multiple stressors that require immediate support. Crisis intervention focuses on providing immediate assistance to individuals in distress and can help address the child's current emotional and psychological needs. Summary of other choices: B: Creating a safety plan may be relevant if there are safety concerns, but it does not address the child's emotional well-being. C: Referring to family therapy may be beneficial in addressing family dynamics, but it may not be the most urgent intervention in this case. D: Referring for case management is important for coordinating services, but it may not provide the immediate emotional support needed in this situation.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Start studying See pricing

Ten more RN exams clinical judgment questions

Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.

Question 6

Which of the following is a guideline for dealing with urinary incontinence?

  1. A. The nursing assistant should let roommates know when residents have been incontinent so that they can help notify the care team when incontinence occurs.
  2. B. The nursing assistant should tell residents' families about episodes of incontinence so they can encourage residents to do better.
  3. C. The nursing assistant should change wet or soiled linens or incontinence briefs immediately.
  4. D. The nursing assistant should not offer fluids because this will help lessen episodes of incontinence.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

Today, research that combines an experimental strategy with __________ approach is becoming increasingly common.

  1. A. both a correlational and a sequential
  2. B. either a correlational or a sequential
  3. C. either a longitudinal or a cross-sectional
  4. D. both a correlational and a longitudinal
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

A patient with asthma reports increased use of a rescue inhaler. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

  1. A. Notify the healthcare provider about the patient's symptoms.
  2. B. Teach the patient proper inhaler technique.
  3. C. Perform a peak expiratory flow reading.
  4. D. Assess the patient's adherence to a maintenance medication regimen.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

Which statement accurately describes the importance of birthing person position changes during the second stage of labor?

  1. A. Position changes have an impact on fetal descent.
  2. B. Position changes can lead to support person stress.
  3. C. Fetal descent is solely determined by uterine contractions.
  4. D. Maintaining a supine position is the safest option.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4hr postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. A. Administer indomethacin
  2. B. Insert a second using a 22-gauge IV catheter.
  3. C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
  4. D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

Expectant parents ask a prenaNtal RnursIe eGducaBto.rC, “WMhich setting for childbirth limits the U S N T O amount of parent–infant interaction?” Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting?

  1. A. Birth center
  2. B. Home birth
  3. C. Traditional hospital birth
  4. D. Labor, birth, and recovery room
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

What is the most appropriate treatment for a client with a history of asthma and wheezing?

  1. A. Administer bronchodilators
  2. B. Administer oxygen and encourage fluid intake
  3. C. Administer corticosteroids
  4. D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?

  1. A. Allergy diagnostics
  2. B. Prognosis for the disease
  3. C. Treatment
  4. D. Treatment evaluation
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

The nurse is preparing a patient for thoracentesis. Which position is most appropriate?

  1. A. Supine with the head of the bed flat.
  2. B. Sitting upright and leaning forward.
  3. C. Lying on the affected side.
  4. D. Prone with arms raised above the head.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

What is the purpose of embryo freezing in fertility treatments?

  1. A. To eliminate the need for future egg retrieval cycles.
  2. B. To store embryos for future use, preserving fertility options.
  3. C. To improve the genetic quality of embryos before transfer.
  4. D. To avoid the use of hormonal treatments during IVF.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these RN exams clinical judgment questions

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 137 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Start studying See pricing