RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 24
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 24
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 30 year old male presents with a stab wound to the abdomen. BP is 85/60, HR 130, RR 26 and GCS 14. Neck veins are flat and chest examination is clear with bilateral breath sounds. Optimal resuscitation should include:
A. "Transfusion of FFP and platelets"
B. "Preparation for laparotomy while initiating fluid resuscitation"
C. "Resuscitation with crystalloid and pRBC until base excess is normal"
D. "Fluid resuscitation and angioembolization"
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "Preparation for laparotomy while initiating fluid resuscitation"
The correct answer is B: "Preparation for laparotomy while initiating fluid resuscitation." In this scenario, the patient is hemodynamically unstable with signs of hypovolemic shock. The priority is to address the source of bleeding, which is likely intra-abdominal due to the stab wound. Therefore, preparing for a laparotomy to control the bleeding is crucial. Fluid resuscitation should be initiated to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics and improve tissue perfusion. This approach addresses the immediate life-threatening issue and is the most appropriate course of action to prevent further deterioration.
Explanation for other choices:
A: "Transfusion of FFP and platelets" - This option does not address the immediate need for controlling bleeding and stabilizing the patient's hemodynamics.
C: "Resuscitation with crystalloid and pRBC until base excess is normal" - While fluid resuscitation is necessary, waiting for base excess to normalize may delay definitive treatment and compromise the
Question 2
Schemata, automatic thoughts, and cognitive distortions are terms that relate to:
A. Rational-emotive behavioral therapy.
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C. Operant conditioning theory.
D. Biofeedback.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
The correct answer is B: Cognitive-behavioral therapy. Schemata, automatic thoughts, and cognitive distortions are central concepts in cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). In CBT, schemata are core beliefs, automatic thoughts are immediate cognitive responses to situations, and cognitive distortions are irrational thought patterns. CBT aims to identify and challenge these cognitive processes to promote healthier thinking patterns and behaviors.
Incorrect choices:
A: Rational-emotive behavioral therapy focuses on challenging irrational beliefs and is related to CBT, but does not specifically address schemata, automatic thoughts, and cognitive distortions.
C: Operant conditioning theory focuses on learning through reinforcement and punishment, not cognitive processes like schemata and automatic thoughts.
D: Biofeedback is a technique to help individuals control physiological processes, such as heart rate or muscle tension, and is not directly related to cognitive processes addressed in CBT.
Question 3
A patient who has AIDS is being treated in the hospital and admits to having periods of extreme anxiety. What would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Teach the patient guided imagery.
B. Give the patient more control of her antiretroviral regimen.
C. Increase the patients activity level.
D. Collaborate with the patients physician to obtain an order for hydromorphone.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Teach the patient guided imagery.
The most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with AIDS experiencing extreme anxiety is to teach the patient guided imagery. Guided imagery is a relaxation technique that can help the patient reduce anxiety levels, promote a sense of calm, and improve overall well-being. By teaching the patient how to use guided imagery, the nurse empowers the patient to manage her anxiety in a non-pharmacological way. This intervention promotes self-care and allows the patient to have a tool to use independently beyond the hospital setting. Giving the patient more control of her antiretroviral regimen may be beneficial for adherence but does not directly address the anxiety symptoms. Increasing the patient's activity level may be helpful for overall well-being but may not specifically target the extreme anxiety. Collaborating with the patient's physician to obtain an order for hydromorphone, a potent opioid medication, is not appropriate unless it is indicated for severe pain management, not anxiety.
Question 4
A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend?
A. Maintenance of good perineal hygiene
B. Prevention of constipation
C. Increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum
D. Performance of pelvic muscle exercises Chapter 58: Breast Cancer: Breast cancer – risks factors, Diagnostic tests and management, Self Breast Exam, Perioperative care: Complications, Rehab, Discharge teaching
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Performance of pelvic muscle exercises Chapter 58: Breast Cancer: Breast cancer – risks factors, Diagnostic tests and management, Self Breast Exam, Perioperative care: Complications, Rehab, Discharge teaching
The correct answer is D, performance of pelvic muscle exercises. Pelvic muscle exercises, also known as Kegel exercises, help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles which support the bladder, uterus, and bowel. By strengthening these muscles, the risk of developing cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse postpartum is reduced. It is a proactive approach to prevent these conditions.
Choice A, maintenance of good perineal hygiene, is important for preventing infections but does not specifically address the risk of pelvic organ prolapse. Choice B, prevention of constipation, is also important but does not directly target the muscle weakness that contributes to prolapse. Choice C, increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum, is not as effective in preventing prolapse as pelvic muscle exercises.
In summary, pelvic muscle exercises are the most appropriate recommendation as they directly address strengthening the muscles that support the pelvic organs, reducing the risk of prolapse postpartum.
Question 5
The nurse is testing a patient's visual accommodation, which refers to:
A. pupillary constriction when looking at a near object.
B. pupillary dilation when looking at a far object.
C. changes in peripheral vision in response to light.
D. involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — pupillary constriction when looking at a near object.
Visual accommodation refers to the ability of the eye to adjust focus when shifting gaze between objects at different distances. The correct answer is A, pupillary constriction when looking at a near object, as this is a key component of visual accommodation. When looking at a near object, the eye needs to adjust its focus by constricting the pupil to allow more depth of field and clearer vision. This process helps in bringing near objects into focus.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Pupillary dilation when looking at a far object is not related to visual accommodation, as the pupil dilates in low light conditions to allow more light to enter the eye.
C: Changes in peripheral vision in response to light is not related to visual accommodation, as peripheral vision refers to the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight.
D: Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light is a protective reflex to shield the eyes from excessive light and is not directly related to visual
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Question 6
Which statement is true regarding oral care for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Tooth brushing is performed every 2 hours for the greatest effect.
B. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing WWW .THENURSINGMASTERY.COM VAP.
C. Oral care protocols should include oral suctioning and brushing teeth.
D. Protocols that include chlorhexidine gluconate have beaebnirb e.cfofme/ctetsivt e in preventing VAP.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. This statement is true because proper oral care, including brushing teeth, oral suctioning, and using chlorhexidine gluconate, has been shown to reduce the risk of VAP by decreasing the colonization of pathogenic bacteria in the oral cavity. Regular oral care helps maintain oral hygiene and reduce the risk of aspiration of bacteria into the lungs, which is a common cause of VAP.
Incorrect Answer Analysis:
A: Tooth brushing every 2 hours may be excessive and could potentially cause harm to the oral mucosa, leading to increased risk of infection.
C: While oral suctioning and brushing teeth are important components of oral care, the statement is not comprehensive enough to address the full range of interventions needed to prevent VAP.
D: While chlorhexidine gluconate can be effective in preventing VAP, the statement implies that it is the only effective intervention, which is not true.
The spouse of a man being treated with sertraline (Zoloft) calls to report that he had a grand mal seizure. Prior to the seizure, he had seemed confused and his forehead felt hot. The man does not have a seizure-disorder history. Which action should the nurse direct the spouse to take?
A. Monitor the patient and notify the clinic if there are more seizures.
B. Hold all medications and call 911 for transportation to the hospital.
C. Hold tonight's sertraline and encourage him to drink more fluids.
D. Administer an antipyretic drug to lower his fever and prevent seizures.
Correct answer:
Step 1: The man had a grand mal seizure, confusion, and a hot forehead, which are signs of serotonin syndrome, a serious side effect of sertraline.
Step 2: The nurse should direct the spouse to hold all medications to prevent further serotonin syndrome symptoms.
Step 3: Calling 911 for immediate transportation to the hospital is crucial for prompt evaluation and treatment of the seizure and serotonin syndrome.
Step 4: This action ensures the man receives appropriate medical care to address the seizure and manage the potential serotonin syndrome.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as monitoring the patient at home is not sufficient for a serious medical emergency like serotonin syndrome.
- Choice C is incorrect as simply holding tonight's sertraline and encouraging fluids does not address the immediate need for medical intervention.
- Choice D is incorrect as administering an antipyretic drug does not address the underlying cause of the seizure and confusion, which is serotonin syndrome.
Mr. and Mrs. Smith and their three children (ages 5, 8, and 10) are in therapy with the nurse psychotherapist. Mrs. Smith tells the nurse that their marriage has been 'falling apart' since the birth of their youngest child, Tom. She explains that they 'did not want a third child, and I became pregnant even after my husband had undergone a vasectomy. We were very angry, the pregnancy was a problematic one, and the child has been difficult since birth. We had problems before he was born, but since Tom was born, things have gone from bad to worse. No one can control him, and he is wrecking our family!' The nurse assesses that which of the following may be occurring in this family?
A. Scapegoating
B. Triangling
C. Disengagement
D. Enmeshment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Scapegoating. Scapegoating occurs when one family member is blamed for the family's issues. In this case, Tom, the youngest child, is being blamed for the family's problems since his birth. Mrs. Smith explicitly states that they did not want a third child and that Tom has been difficult since birth. By blaming Tom for the family's issues, the family is using him as a scapegoat to avoid addressing their underlying problems. This behavior can negatively impact Tom's self-esteem and create further dysfunction within the family dynamics.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Triangling involves involving a third person in a conflict to avoid directly addressing the issue. While the family dynamics may involve triangulation, the primary issue here is scapegoating.
C: Disengagement refers to emotional withdrawal and lack of involvement in family dynamics. This does not align with the scenario provided.
D: Enmeshment is when boundaries between family members are blurred, leading to a
In order for male differentiation to occur during embryonic development, testosterone must be secreted from the testes. What stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development?
A. Luteinizing hormone from the maternal pituitary gland
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Inhibin from the corpus luteum
D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the embryo’s hypothalamus
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development. hCG is produced by the developing embryo and acts on the Leydig cells in the testes to trigger the production of testosterone. This hormone plays a crucial role in male differentiation by promoting the development of male reproductive organs.
A: Luteinizing hormone (LH) from the maternal pituitary gland is not involved in the early stages of male differentiation in the embryo. LH is typically involved in the regulation of testosterone production postnatally.
C: Inhibin from the corpus luteum is not involved in the stimulation of testosterone secretion during embryonic development. Inhibin is mainly involved in the negative feedback regulation of FSH secretion.
D: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the embryo's hypothalamus is not responsible for directly stimulating testosterone secretion during embryonic development. GnRH regulates the secretion
A nurse is concerned about the practice of routinely ordering a battery of laboratory tests for patients who are admitted to the hospital from a long-term care facility. An appropriate source in handling this ethical dilemma would be which of the following?
A. the patient's family
B. the admitting physician
C. the nurse in charge of the unit
D. the institutional ethics committee
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: the institutional ethics committee. The ethics committee is the appropriate source for handling ethical dilemmas as they are trained to provide guidance on complex ethical issues in healthcare settings. They can review the situation, consider various perspectives, and provide recommendations based on ethical principles and standards. In this case, the nurse can consult the ethics committee to evaluate the practice of ordering unnecessary tests and determine the most ethical course of action.
Summary of other choices:
A: the patient's family - While the family may have valuable input, they may not have the expertise to resolve ethical dilemmas in healthcare settings.
B: the admitting physician - The physician may have limited perspective and may not be impartial in making decisions regarding routine testing.
C: the nurse in charge of the unit - The nurse may have insights but may not have the authority or expertise to handle complex ethical dilemmas effectively.
A 35 year old female sustains multiple injuries in a motor vehicle crash and is transported to a small hospital in full spinal protection. She has a GCS of 4 and is being mechanically ventilate I.v access is established and warmed crystalloid is infuse She remains hemodynamically normal and full spinal protection is maintaine Preparations are made to transfer her to another facility for definitive neurosurgical care. Prior to transport, which of the following tests or treatments is mandatory?
A. FAST exam
B. Lateral cervical spine xray
C. Chest x-ray
D. Administration of methylprednisolone
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Chest x-ray. Before transferring the patient for neurosurgical care, a chest x-ray is mandatory to assess for any potential thoracic injuries that may impact respiratory function during transport. This is crucial to ensure the patient's stability and prevent any complications.
Choice A, FAST exam, is typically used to evaluate for intra-abdominal injuries and is not directly related to the patient's immediate need for neurosurgical care.
Choice B, Lateral cervical spine x-ray, may be important for assessing cervical spine injuries, but in this scenario, the patient is already in full spinal protection and the priority is to address potential thoracic injuries that could affect respiratory function.
Choice D, Administration of methylprednisolone, is not indicated as a mandatory step prior to transport for neurosurgical care. While it may be considered as part of the treatment plan later on, it is not an immediate requirement for safe transport in this case.
2 Which of the following is the best way for a nursing assistant to keep residents' health information confidential?
A. Discuss a resident's information away from the facility so that other residents cannot hear it
B. Bring family and friends to the facility to meet the residents
C. Return charts to their proper place after use
D. Post updates about favorite residents on her Facebook page to avoid being overheard
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Return charts to their proper place after use. This is the best way for a nursing assistant to keep residents' health information confidential because it ensures that sensitive information is securely stored and not left out in the open where unauthorized individuals may access it. By returning charts to their proper place, the nursing assistant maintains the confidentiality and privacy of residents' health information.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: Discussing a resident's information away from the facility does not guarantee confidentiality as the information can still be overheard by others outside the facility.
B: Bringing family and friends to the facility can compromise residents' privacy as they may inadvertently overhear confidential information.
D: Posting updates about residents on social media violates their privacy and confidentiality, as this information can be accessed by a wider audience, including individuals who should not have access to it.
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
A. Irreversible shock
B. Uncompensated shock
C. Reversible shock
D. Compensated shock
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, bradyarrhythmia, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to decreased tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. The patient's pale, cold, clammy skin and cyanosis indicate poor perfusion. The low heart rate and irregular rhythm suggest the heart is struggling to maintain cardiac output. The inadequate respiratory rate further impairs oxygenation. These findings collectively indicate that the patient is in a state of decompensation, unable to adequately compensate for the decreased perfusion. Irreversible shock (A) would involve complete organ failure and a fatal outcome. Reversible shock (C) implies that interventions could restore normal perfusion, which is not the case here. Compensated shock (D) would involve more effective compensatory mechanisms to maintain perf
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
A. Irreversible shock
B. Uncompensated shock
C. Reversible shock
D. Compensated shock
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, bradyarrhythmia, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to decreased tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. The patient's pale, cold, clammy skin and cyanosis indicate poor perfusion. The low heart rate and irregular rhythm suggest the heart is struggling to maintain cardiac output. The inadequate respiratory rate further impairs oxygenation. These findings collectively indicate that the patient is in a state of decompensation, unable to adequately compensate for the decreased perfusion. Irreversible shock (A) would involve complete organ failure and a fatal outcome. Reversible shock (C) implies that interventions could restore normal perfusion, which is not the case here. Compensated shock (D) would involve more effective compensatory mechanisms to maintain perf
The nurse is teaching a student nurse about some of the differences between a term and preterm infant. Which statement is most accurate?
A. Infants born at 32 weeks gestational age have sufficient alveolar stability to maintain adequate lung expansion.
B. Surfactant may need to be given to the infant born less than 34 to 36 weeks of age to assist with alveolar stability.
C. Women with gestational diabetes have larger babies; therefore, there are fewer issues with lung maturity when born preterm.
D. Mothers carrying multiples fetuses will increase the surfactant production naturally in utero.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because infants born before 34 to 36 weeks gestational age may not have fully developed surfactant production, which is crucial for alveolar stability and lung expansion. Surfactant reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing their collapse. Without sufficient surfactant, preterm infants are at risk of respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice A is incorrect because infants born at 32 weeks may still have underdeveloped alveoli and insufficient surfactant production, leading to potential lung expansion issues.
Choice C is incorrect because the presence of gestational diabetes does not guarantee sufficient lung maturity in preterm infants. Lung maturity is more closely related to gestational age and surfactant production.
Choice D is incorrect because while carrying multiple fetuses can slightly increase surfactant production, it may not be sufficient for preterm infants born before 34 to 36 weeks, necessitating the need for exogenous surfactant administration.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 24 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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