LPN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 4
LPN exams · safety and infection control
LPN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 4
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
There is great variation among individual responses to the same stressor. In addition to age, nutritional status, and genetic inheritance, which additional factor influences the expression of stress response and reflects the complex psychological processing involved?
A. The type of stressor.
B. The amount of stress.
C. The context of the stressful event.
D. The individual's appraisal of the stressor.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The individual's appraisal of the stressor.
The correct answer is D: The individual's appraisal of the stressor. This is because how an individual perceives and evaluates a stressor determines their emotional and physiological response. Appraisal involves assessing the significance of the stressor in relation to one's goals, resources, and beliefs. Different individuals may appraise the same stressor differently, leading to varied stress responses.
A: The type of stressor is not the most influential factor in determining individual responses to stress, as people can have different reactions to the same stressor based on their appraisal of it.
B: The amount of stress does not solely determine the response, as two individuals may experience the same level of stress but react differently based on their appraisal.
C: The context of the stressful event is important, but again, it is the individual's interpretation and appraisal of the context that primarily influences their response to stress.
Question 2
Which of the following organizations would direct nurses' response to a countywide disaster?
A. American Red Cross
B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C. Emergency Management Agency
D. The local public health department
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Emergency Management Agency
The first level of disaster response occurs at the local level with the mobilization of responders such as the fire department, law enforcement, public health, and emergency services. If the disaster stretches local resources, the county or city emergency management agency (EMA) will coordinate activities through an emergency operations center (EOC). Generally, local responders within a county sign a regional or statewide mutual aid agreement to allow the sharing of needed personnel, equipment, services, and supplies. The American Red Cross may assist with disaster relief efforts, but this would not be the agency that would direct the response by nurses. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is a national agency and would most likely not be involved with a county-wide disaster. The local public health department may be involved in responding to the disaster, but this would not be the organization that is responsible for leading the response.
Question 3
A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?
A. Provide an inservice on medication administration to all the nurses.
B. Require staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination.
C. Review the events leading up to each medication administration error.
D. Develop a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Review the events leading up to each medication administration error.
The correct answer is C: Review the events leading up to each medication administration error. This strategy should be initiated first because it focuses on identifying the root causes of the errors. By reviewing the events, the committee can understand why the errors occurred and implement targeted interventions to prevent them in the future. This proactive approach addresses the underlying issues in the medication administration process, leading to sustainable improvements.
Choice A is incorrect because providing an inservice on medication administration to all nurses may not address the specific causes of the errors. Choice B is incorrect as requiring staff nurses to pass an examination may not necessarily prevent errors if the underlying system issues are not addressed. Choice D is also incorrect as developing a quality improvement program for nurses involved in errors is reactive rather than proactive, and does not prevent future errors.
Question 4
A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse ask the provider to care for first?
A. A toddler who has asthma and has a pulse oximetry reading of 95% while receiving oxygen at 2 L/min
B. A toddler who has otitis media, a temperature of 39.2° C (102.6° F), and purulent ear discharge
C. A school-age child who has acute epiglottitis, is drooling, and has an absence of spontaneous cough
D. An adolescent who has sickle cell disease, reports pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10, and requests pain medication
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — A school-age child who has acute epiglottitis, is drooling, and has an absence of spontaneous cough
The correct answer is C. The school-age child with acute epiglottitis should be cared for first due to the potential for airway compromise and respiratory distress, as evidenced by drooling and absence of spontaneous cough. This is an emergency situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent airway obstruction and ensure adequate oxygenation.
Choice A is not the priority as a pulse oximetry reading of 95% is adequate, and the child is already receiving oxygen. Choice B, the toddler with otitis media, can be managed with antipyretics and antibiotics for the ear infection but does not have an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice D, the adolescent with sickle cell disease and pain, should receive pain medication but does not have an acute airway emergency like the child with epiglottitis. It is crucial to prioritize care based on the urgency and potential severity of the condition to ensure the best outcomes for the patients.
Question 5
A nurse who is leading a team of nurse managers is planning to make a major announcement. The nurse should use which of the following nonverbal communication techniques to enhance the importance of the announcement?
A. Sit in front of the group for the meeting and then stand for the announcement.
B. Cross her arms over her chest when beginning the announcement.
C. Stare at the people the announcement will affect the most.
D. Lean gently over the back of a chair sitting to one side of the room when making the announcement.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Sit in front of the group for the meeting and then stand for the announcement.
The correct answer is A because standing up during the announcement can effectively signal to the team that something important is about to be shared. By changing position from sitting to standing, the nurse can capture the attention of the group and signal a shift in focus. This nonverbal cue can help to emphasize the importance of the announcement and create a sense of anticipation among the team members.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not effectively enhance the importance of the announcement. Crossing arms over the chest (B) can convey defensiveness or closed-off body language, which may not be conducive to fostering a positive reception to the message. Staring at individuals (C) can come across as aggressive or confrontational, potentially causing discomfort or resistance among the team. Leaning over the back of a chair (D) may appear casual or lack the gravitas needed to convey the significance of the announcement.
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Question 6
According to research, what is the means through which an organization's safety promotion activities produce safer work behaviour?
A. safety compliance
B. safety participation
C. actual safety climate
D. perceived safety climate
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: actual safety climate. Safety climate refers to the shared perceptions among employees regarding safety-related policies, procedures, and practices within an organization. Research has shown that a positive safety climate, where there is a strong emphasis on safety and employees feel supported in prioritizing safety, leads to safer work behaviors. Actual safety climate directly influences employees' attitudes and behaviors towards safety, ultimately impacting their actions in the workplace.
A: Safety compliance focuses more on following rules and regulations rather than creating a positive safety culture.
B: Safety participation is related to employees' involvement in safety activities, but it does not capture the overall safety culture within the organization.
D: Perceived safety climate is about employees' perceptions of safety, which may not always align with the actual safety practices and policies in place.
The ANA code of nursing ethics articulates that the nurse 'promotes, advocates for, and strives to protect the health, safety, and rights of the patient.' This includes the protection of patient privacy. On the basis of this principle, if you participate in a public online social network such as Facebook, could you post images of a patient's x-ray film if you obscured or deleted all patient identifiers?
A. Yes, because patient privacy would not be violated since patient identifiers were removed
B. Yes, because respect for autonomy implies that you have the autonomy to decide what constitutes privacy
C. No, because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient on the basis of other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work
D. No, because the principle of justice requires you to allocate resources fairly
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: No, because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient on the basis of other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work.
Rationale:
1. The ANA code emphasizes protecting patient privacy.
2. Even if identifiers are removed, other information can identify the patient.
3. Posting x-ray images can lead to patient identification through contextual clues.
4. Disclosing patient information without consent violates privacy rights.
5. Upholding patient confidentiality is crucial in healthcare settings.
Summary:
Choice A is incorrect because patient identification is not solely based on identifiers. Choice B is incorrect as autonomy doesn't override patient privacy rights. Choice D is irrelevant to the question of patient privacy. Choice C is correct as it highlights the potential risk of patient identification despite removing identifiers.
Which of the following is the best way for a home health nurse (HHN) to help a client who has right-sided paresis secondary to a stroke?
A. Arranging for private duty nurses to assist the client with daily needs
B. Assisting the client with activities of daily living (ADLs)
C. Teaching self-care to the client
D. Teaching the family to assist the client with ADLs
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Teaching self-care to the client. This is because empowering the client to perform self-care tasks promotes independence and self-esteem. By teaching the client self-care techniques, the home health nurse helps the client regain control over their daily activities. This approach fosters self-reliance and encourages the client to actively participate in their own care, leading to better outcomes in rehabilitation.
Choice A is incorrect because relying solely on private duty nurses may hinder the client's independence and self-efficacy. Choice B is also not the best option as simply assisting the client with ADLs does not encourage the client to develop skills for self-care. Choice D is not ideal as it shifts the responsibility to the family rather than empowering the client directly. Ultimately, teaching self-care to the client is the most effective way to support their recovery and enhance their quality of life.
An individual who is trying to lose weight is dining out with friends. While looking at the menu, they notice that the restaurant includes calorie content with all menu items. How is this information likely to impact the individual's menu choices?
A. It is a barrier.
B. It is a cue to action.
C. It is an innovation.
D. It is perceived susceptibility.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: It is a cue to action. When calorie content is provided on the menu, it serves as a cue to action for the individual trying to lose weight. This information prompts them to make more informed and healthier menu choices, helping them stay within their calorie goals. It encourages them to select lower-calorie options and be more mindful of their food choices.
A: It is a barrier - This is incorrect because calorie information typically serves as a helpful tool, not a barrier, in making healthier choices.
C: It is an innovation - This is incorrect because providing calorie content on menus is not necessarily an innovation, but rather a common practice in many restaurants.
D: It is perceived susceptibility - This is incorrect as perceived susceptibility refers to an individual's belief about their risk of a particular health issue, which is not directly related to the impact of calorie information on menu choices.
The program chairperson sends a survey to collect data on how many nursing students work in the clinical setting. What type of research method is being used?
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Meta-analysis
D. Longitudinal
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Quantitative. In this scenario, the program chairperson is collecting numerical data on the number of nursing students working in the clinical setting. Quantitative research involves collecting data in numerical form to analyze and draw statistical inferences. This method is suitable for studying relationships and patterns between variables.
A: Qualitative research focuses on gathering non-numerical, descriptive data to understand opinions, behaviors, and experiences.
C: Meta-analysis involves synthesizing results from multiple studies to draw conclusions about a specific research question.
D: Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period to track changes or trends.
In summary, the program chairperson's survey collecting numerical data on nursing students' clinical work aligns with the characteristics of quantitative research, making it the correct choice.
What basic model underlies most applications of behavioural programming in the workplace?
A. Trigger → Behaviour → Reward Test Bank to accompany Management of Occupational Health and Safety, 6e 10-1
B. Trigger → Consequence→ Behaviour
C. Antecedent → Behaviour → Consequence
D. Antecedent → Behaviour → Reward
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Antecedent → Behaviour → Consequence. This model is known as the ABC model of behavior analysis. The antecedent triggers the behavior, which is followed by a consequence. This model is widely used in behavioral programming in the workplace as it helps understand and modify employee behaviors effectively. The antecedent sets the stage for the behavior to occur, the behavior itself is the observable action, and the consequence reinforces or discourages the behavior.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Trigger → Behaviour → Reward - This model does not include the consequence element, which is crucial in understanding behavior.
B: Trigger → Consequence → Behaviour - The consequence should follow the behavior, not come before it. This model is out of sequence.
D: Antecedent → Behaviour → Reward - This model misses the important step of analyzing the consequences of behavior.
The nursing leadership role once the all-hazards preparedness plan is completed is to:
A. confirm that resources are allocated appropriately.
B. ensure that every facility department understands their role is a disaster situation.
C. establish goals for all-hazards preparedness.
D. provide rewards for the committee's accomplishments.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because once the all-hazards preparedness plan is completed, the nursing leadership role is to confirm that resources are allocated appropriately. This is crucial to ensure effective response to any disaster.
Explanation:
1. Confirming resource allocation ensures that necessary supplies, equipment, and personnel are in place.
2. It allows for a coordinated and efficient response in a disaster situation.
3. Nursing leadership plays a key role in overseeing resource management to address any gaps or deficiencies.
Summary of other choices:
B: Ensuring every department understands their role is important but not the primary role of nursing leadership post-plan completion.
C: Establishing goals is essential in preparedness, but resource allocation is more immediate post-plan completion.
D: Providing rewards is not the main focus post-plan completion; ensuring proper resource allocation is more critical.
Which of the following questions should be considered in the hospital gap analysis survey of safety and security readiness in the event of a disaster? (Select all that apply.)
A. Does the facility have a lockdown plan in case of emergency?
B. Does the facility have procedures in place for use of PPE?
C. Does the facility have a mechanism of tracking costs associated with the event?
D. Do you have a plan for allowing staff entry into the facility during an emergency?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Does the facility have a lockdown plan in case of emergency? This question is crucial for assessing safety and security readiness during a disaster. A lockdown plan ensures the protection of patients, staff, and visitors in case of a security threat. It involves procedures for securing the facility, controlling access, and communicating effectively during emergencies.
B: Does the facility have procedures in place for the use of PPE? While important for general safety, this question is not directly related to security readiness during a disaster.
C: Does the facility have a mechanism for tracking costs associated with the event? Cost tracking is important but not directly related to assessing safety and security readiness.
D: Do you have a plan for allowing staff entry into the facility during an emergency? This question is more about access control than overall security readiness during a disaster.
In most ethical dilemmas in health care, the solution to the dilemma requires negotiation among members of the health care team. Why is the nurse's point of view valuable?
A. Nurses understand the principle of autonomy to guide respect for a patient's self-worth.
B. Nurses have a scope of practice that encourages their presence during ethical discussions.
C. Nurses develop a relationship with the patient that is unique among all professional health care providers.
D. The nurse's code of ethics recommends that a nurse be present at any ethical discussion about patient care.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because nurses develop a unique relationship with the patient, which allows them to provide valuable insights into the patient's preferences, values, and needs. This relationship enables nurses to advocate effectively for the patient's best interests and ensure that the patient's voice is heard in ethical discussions.
Choice A is incorrect because understanding the principle of autonomy is not unique to nurses and does not necessarily make their point of view more valuable in ethical dilemmas.
Choice B is also incorrect as the scope of practice does not inherently make the nurse's point of view more valuable in ethical discussions; it simply defines the tasks they are allowed to perform.
Choice D is incorrect because while the nurse's code of ethics may recommend their presence at ethical discussions, it does not inherently make their point of view more valuable than other healthcare team members.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?
A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom of auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to treat both positive symptoms like hallucinations and negative symptoms like lack of motivation. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, helping to reduce hallucinations and delusions.
A: Haloperidol (Haldol) is a typical antipsychotic that is more commonly used to address positive symptoms like hallucinations, rather than negative symptoms. It is not the best choice for addressing this specific symptom.
B: Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine that is used to treat anxiety and seizures, not typically used to address positive symptoms of schizophrenia like hallucinations.
D: Clozapine (Clozaril) is an atypical antipsychotic that is more commonly used to address negative symptoms rather than positive symptoms like
About these LPN exams safety and infection control questions
LPN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 4 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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