LPN exams pharmacology practice questions set 5

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The correct answer is A: Blocking angiotensin II receptors. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that works by specifically blocking the angiotensin II receptor type 1 (AT1) receptors. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its action at the receptor level, losartan helps dilate blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. This mechanism is specific to ARBs and distinguishes them from other classes of antihypertensive medications. Choice B: Inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine is incorrect as this mechanism is associated with drugs like tricyclic antidepressants and not losartan. Choice C: Blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels is incorrect as this mechanism is associated with calcium channel blockers like amlodipine, not losartan. Choice D: Inhibiting aldosterone secretion is incorrect as this mechanism is associated with drugs like

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The correct answer is B: Fludrocortisone excess. In Addison's disease, there is adrenal insufficiency leading to low levels of cortisol and aldosterone. Fludrocortisone is a synthetic mineralocorticoid used to replace aldosterone in the treatment of Addison's disease. Excess fludrocortisone can cause retention of sodium and water, leading to hypertension, hypokalemia, weakness, and paresthesias. Constipation can also occur due to altered electrolyte balance. A: Cortisol-induced hyperglycemia is not the best explanation for the patient's symptoms as hyperglycemia is not a prominent feature of Addison's disease. C: Inadequate therapy of adrenal insufficiency would not cause the specific symptoms mentioned. D: Cortisol-induced myopathy is not the primary cause of weakness and paresthesias in Addison's disease; aldosterone deficiency leading to electrolyte imbalance is more relevant.

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The correct answer is B. The nurse should educate the patient on orthostatic hypotension, a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants that causes dizziness upon standing. By advising the patient to increase fluid intake and change positions slowly, the nurse is promoting safety and providing a practical solution to manage the side effect. This response addresses the patient's concern effectively and empowers them to take control of their symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's symptoms as something to get used to does not address the potential risks of orthostatic hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the patient's discomfort and may invalidate their concerns. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's symptoms by attributing them solely to negative thinking, rather than acknowledging the physiological effects of the medication.

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The correct answer is A: Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23). This vaccine is recommended for adults with chronic lung conditions like emphysema to prevent pneumococcal infections. It helps in reducing the risk of pneumonia and its complications. Rationale: 1. PPSV23 is specifically indicated for adults with chronic medical conditions, including emphysema. 2. Emphysema puts the individual at a higher risk for respiratory infections, including pneumococcal infections. 3. PPSV23 provides protection against pneumococcal bacteria, which is a common cause of pneumonia. 4. Administering PPSV23 annually helps maintain immunity and reduces the likelihood of pneumococcal infections in high-risk individuals. Summary: B: Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) is primarily recommended for children, not for stable middle-aged adults with emphysema. C: Quadrivalent inactivated

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Step 1: Diuretics can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Step 2: Orthostatic hypotension increases the risk of falling and injury, especially in older adults. Step 3: By instructing the patient to take extra precautions when standing up, the nurse helps prevent falls and injuries. Step 4: This teaching point is crucial for promoting the patient's safety and independence at home. Summary: Choice A is incorrect because the timing of diuretic intake with meals is not as critical as preventing falls. Choice B is incorrect as skipping doses can lead to uncontrolled hypertension. Choice C is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can have negative consequences and potassium supplements may not be necessary. Choice D is correct as it addresses the potential side effect of orthostatic hypotension and emphasizes safety measures.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B: increased concentration of neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap. When neurotransmitter reuptake is blocked, it remains in the synaptic gap longer, leading to an increased concentration available for binding to postsynaptic receptors. This enhances neurotransmission and can help alleviate symptoms associated with neurotransmitter imbalances. A: decreased concentration of the neurotransmitter in the central nervous system - This is incorrect because blocking reuptake leads to an increased concentration of neurotransmitter, not decreased. C: destruction of receptor sites - This is incorrect as blocking reuptake does not lead to the destruction of receptor sites. D: limbic system stimulation - This is incorrect as blocking reuptake affects neurotransmitter levels in the synaptic gap, not the stimulation of a specific brain region like the limbic system.

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The correct answer is that the half-life is the same regardless of the plasma concentration (B). First-order kinetics implies that the rate of drug elimination is proportional to its plasma concentration, meaning a constant fraction of the drug is removed per unit time. This results in a consistent half-life, independent of the initial concentration, as seen with most drugs like aspirin. Option A is incorrect because multiple metabolic pathways can exist in first-order kinetics. Option C describes first-pass metabolism but isn't inherent to first-order kinetics. Option D is false as elimination rate depends on concentration, not administration rate. Option E (original) about vascular confinement is unrelated. This principle is foundational in pharmacokinetics, allowing predictable dosing regimens, unlike zero-order kinetics where half-life varies with concentration, as with ethanol.

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The correct answer is B: Non-competitive antagonist. This is because a non-competitive antagonist binds irreversibly to a different site on the receptor compared to the agonist (norepinephrine in this case) and prevents its activation, leading to a decrease in response. In the graph, the presence of Drug X shifts the concentration-response curve of norepinephrine downward without affecting the maximum response, indicating non-competitive antagonism. A: Silent antagonists do not affect the agonist's binding or activity on the receptor. C: Competitive antagonists compete with the agonist for the same binding site on the receptor, affecting potency but not the maximum response. D: Chemical antagonist is a broad term for any antagonist that binds to the agonist or receptor to prevent activation but does not specifically describe the mechanism like non-competitive antagonism does.

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The correct answer is A: A thiazide diuretic. Thiazide diuretics are recommended as the initial medication for managing hypertension in patients without compelling indications. They are effective in lowering blood pressure by reducing the volume of circulating blood. In this case, the patient's blood pressure readings are consistently elevated, indicating the need for pharmacological management. Thiazide diuretics have been shown to reduce cardiovascular events and mortality in hypertensive patients. Loop diuretics and Spironolactone (Choice B) are not first-line treatments for hypertension and are typically used in specific cases like heart failure. Beta blockers (Choice C) are not the preferred initial treatment for hypertension in the absence of other compelling indications. Thus, the most appropriate choice for managing this patient's hypertension would be a thiazide diuretic.

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The correct answer is B: Diphenhydramine. Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause anticholinergic toxicity in overdose. The symptoms described in the question such as high body temperature, dry skin, dilated pupils, and agitation are consistent with anticholinergic poisoning. Diphenhydramine also has sedative effects which can lead to seizures in high doses. A: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and overdose typically presents with symptoms like gastrointestinal upset and kidney injury, not the symptoms described in the question. C: Phenylephrine is a decongestant that can cause hypertension and tachycardia in overdose, not the symptoms described in the question. D: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor used as an NSAID and overdose usually presents with gastrointestinal symptoms, not the symptoms described in the question.