LPN exams mental health practice questions, set 12
LPN exams · mental health
LPN exams mental health practice questionsset 12
You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Orders from the physician include 100 mg chlorpromazine IM STAT and then 50 mg PO bid; 2 mg benztropine PO bid prn. Because benztropine was ordered on a prn basis, which of the following assessments by the nurse would convey a need for this medication?
A. The client's level of agitation increases.
B. The client complains of a sore throat.
C. The client's skin has a yellowish cast.
D. The client develops tremors and a shuffling gait.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The client develops tremors and a shuffling gait.
The correct answer is D: The client develops tremors and a shuffling gait. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors and shuffling gait that can occur as side effects of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Therefore, the presence of these symptoms indicates a need for benztropine to manage the EPS.
A: The client's level of agitation increasing does not directly relate to the need for benztropine.
B: The client complaining of a sore throat is not a typical indication for benztropine.
C: The client's skin having a yellowish cast is not associated with EPS or a need for benztropine in this context.
In summary, the development of tremors and a shuffling gait in the client with schizophrenia receiving chlorpromazine is a clear indication of EPS and the need for benztropine as a treatment option
Question 2
Epidemiological studies contribute to improvements in care for individuals with mental disorders by:
A. Providing information about effective nursing techniques.
B. Identifying risk factors that contribute to the development of a disorder.
C. Identifying individuals in the general population who will develop a specific disorder
D. Identifying which individuals will respond favorably to a specific treatment.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Identifying risk factors that contribute to the development of a disorder.
The correct answer is B: Identifying risk factors that contribute to the development of a disorder. Epidemiological studies help to identify factors that increase the likelihood of developing mental disorders, leading to better prevention strategies. This is crucial for improving care by targeting interventions early on.
Incorrect choices:
A: Providing information about effective nursing techniques. This is not the primary role of epidemiological studies, which focus on identifying risk factors at a population level.
C: Identifying individuals in the general population who will develop a specific disorder. Epidemiological studies look at populations rather than predicting individual outcomes.
D: Identifying which individuals will respond favorably to a specific treatment. This is more related to clinical trials and personalized medicine rather than epidemiological studies.
Question 3
A patient is taking tranylcypromine sulfate for depression. What advice should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this medication?
A. Warn the patient about severe hypotension.
B. Instruct the patient to avoid beer and cheddar cheese.
C. Encourage the patient to take ginseng and ephedra.
D. Encourage the patient to eat fruit such as bananas.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Instruct the patient to avoid beer and cheddar cheese.
The correct answer is B: Instruct the patient to avoid beer and cheddar cheese. Tranylcypromine sulfate is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), and consuming foods high in tyramine, such as beer and cheddar cheese, can lead to a hypertensive crisis due to the interaction with MAOIs. It is crucial for the nurse to advise the patient to avoid these foods to prevent serious complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Warn the patient about severe hypotension - This is incorrect because MAOIs are known to cause hypertensive crises, not hypotension.
C: Encourage the patient to take ginseng and ephedra - This is incorrect because ginseng and ephedra can interact with MAOIs and lead to an increased risk of hypertensive crisis.
D: Encourage the patient to eat fruit such as bananas - This is incorrect because while a healthy diet is important, there is no specific indication for bananas
Question 4
A patient reports good results from taking an herb to manage migraine headache pain. The nurse confirms there are no hazardous interactions between the herb and the patient’s current prescription drugs. Select the nurse’s best comment to the patient.
A. “Thanks for telling me. I’ll make a note in your medical record that you take it.â€
B. "You are experiencing a placebo effect. When we believe something will help, it usually does.â€
C. "Self-management of health problems can be dangerous. You should have notified me sooner.â€
D. "Research studies show that herbals actually increase migraine pain by inflaming nerve cells in the brain.â€
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "You are experiencing a placebo effect. When we believe something will help, it usually does.â€
The correct answer is B: "You are experiencing a placebo effect. When we believe something will help, it usually does.â€
Rationale:
1. The nurse acknowledges the patient’s positive experience with the herb, validating the patient's perspective.
2. By mentioning the placebo effect, the nurse educates the patient about the potential psychological benefits of belief in a treatment.
3. The nurse's comment is non-judgmental and encourages open communication with the patient.
4. This response promotes patient empowerment in managing their health.
Summary:
A: Merely noting in the medical record does not address the patient’s experience or provide valuable information.
C: This response is accusatory and may discourage the patient from sharing important information in the future.
D: This statement is incorrect and may cause unnecessary fear or confusion for the patient.
Question 5
A new patient at the sleep disorders clinic tells the nurse, I have not slept well in a year, so I never feel good. I do not expect things will ever improve or be any different. Interventions the nurse should consider include (Select all that apply)
A. suggesting use of alcohol as a sedative.
B. providing instruction in relaxation techniques.
C. counseling the patient to address cognitive distortions.
D. health teaching regarding factors that influence sleep.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — providing instruction in relaxation techniques.
The correct answer is B: providing instruction in relaxation techniques. This is the most appropriate intervention because teaching relaxation techniques can help the patient manage stress and anxiety, which are common contributors to sleep disturbances. By learning to relax, the patient may improve their ability to fall asleep and stay asleep.
Choice A is incorrect because suggesting the use of alcohol as a sedative can lead to dependence, disrupt sleep patterns, and worsen the patient's overall health.
Choice C is incorrect because while addressing cognitive distortions may be beneficial, it is not the most immediate intervention for improving sleep quality.
Choice D is incorrect because providing health teaching on factors that influence sleep is important, but focusing solely on this aspect may not directly address the patient's immediate need for better sleep.
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Question 6
A patient is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention is most effective?
A. Encouraging the patient to participate in group activities
B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
C. Allowing the patient to move freely around the unit
D. Engaging the patient in competitive games
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Providing a low-stimulation environment. This is effective because it helps reduce excessive sensory input which can trigger or exacerbate manic symptoms. Manic patients are often sensitive to stimuli, so a calm and quiet environment can help in de-escalating their agitation and hyperactivity.
A: Encouraging group activities can be overwhelming for a manic patient due to the increased stimulation and potential for overstimulation.
C: Allowing free movement may lead to risky behaviors or agitation, as the patient may not be able to self-regulate effectively.
D: Engaging in competitive games can escalate the manic symptoms and potentially lead to aggressive or impulsive behaviors.
In summary, providing a low-stimulation environment is the most effective intervention as it helps manage manic symptoms by reducing triggers and promoting a sense of calm.
You are called to assist an adult female with a possible allergic reaction. You arrive to find a 22-year-old patient who is just beginning to have difficulty breathing. She has itching, urticaria, and hives after a bee-sting. During the possible allergic reaction, what is occurring at the cellular level?
A. The mast cells are retaining the vasoactive amines, resulting in a localized response to the sting
B. The cells begin a hypermetabolic state associated with the patient's increased activity level after the sting
C. An anaerobic metabolism has begun at the local level and is now moving into the vasculature
D. The mast cells have degranulated, releasing serotonin and histamines into the general circulation
Correct answer:
Rationale:
1. Mast cells play a key role in allergic reactions by releasing histamines and other inflammatory mediators.
2. When triggered by an allergen like a bee-sting, mast cells degranulate, releasing histamines and serotonin.
3. Histamines cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, leading to itching, hives, and urticaria.
4. Serotonin contributes to smooth muscle contraction and bronchoconstriction, leading to difficulty breathing.
5. Therefore, choice D is correct as it accurately describes the cellular events in an allergic reaction.
Summary:
A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately depict the cellular processes involved in an allergic reaction. A does not mention degranulation, B focuses on a hypermetabolic state unrelated to allergies, and C refers to anaerobic metabolism which is not the primary mechanism in allergic reactions.
A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.
Correct answer:
When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.
A female client who is wearing dirty clothes and has foul body odor comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What action is most important for the RN to take?
A. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.
B. Ask the client to describe why she is being stalked.
C. Recommend that the client talk with a social worker.
D. Assure the client that the HCP will see her today.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her. This is important because the client is feeling scared and may be in a vulnerable state. Providing a safe and comfortable environment first helps establish trust and rapport with the client, allowing her to feel more at ease to discuss her concerns. It also shows empathy and understanding towards her current situation.
Choice B is incorrect because asking the client to describe why she is being stalked may not be appropriate at this initial stage and could further distress her. Choice C is incorrect as recommending the client talk with a social worker may be premature without understanding the full scope of the situation. Choice D is incorrect as assuring the client that the healthcare provider will see her today does not address her immediate need for a safe and calming environment.
Which individual in the emergency department should be considered at highest risk for completing suicide?
A. An adolescent Asian American girl with superior athletic and academic skills who has asthma.
B. A 38-year-old single, African American female church member with fibrocystic breast disease.
C. A 60-year-old married Hispanic man with 12 grandchildren who has type 2 diabetes.
D. A 79-year-old single, white male diagnosed recently with terminal cancer of the prostate.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the 79-year-old single, white male diagnosed with terminal cancer of the prostate is at the highest risk for completing suicide. This individual is facing a terminal illness, which can lead to feelings of hopelessness and despair, increasing the risk of suicide. The other choices do not present such high-risk factors for suicide.
A: While the adolescent Asian American girl may face pressures from high achievements and asthma, these factors do not inherently place her at the highest risk for suicide.
B: The 38-year-old single, African American female church member with fibrocystic breast disease may face challenges, but they do not indicate a high risk for suicide.
C: The 60-year-old married Hispanic man with 12 grandchildren who has type 2 diabetes has family support and does not have as severe risk factors as the individual in choice D.
A young adult male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a recent suicide attempt. His wife filed for divorce 6 months ago, he lost his job 3 months ago, and his best friend moved to another city 2 weeks ago. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
A. Encourage activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment.
B. Provide constant supervision to prevent another suicide attempt.
C. Limit the client's interactions with other clients.
D. Administer PRN sedative medications.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Encourage activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment. This intervention empowers the client, promoting a sense of autonomy and self-efficacy, which can help improve his mental health. By engaging in activities that provide a sense of control, the client may feel more motivated and hopeful.
Incorrect choices:
B: Providing constant supervision may be necessary in acute situations but does not address the underlying issues of lack of control and self-esteem.
C: Limiting interactions with other clients may lead to social isolation, which is not beneficial for the client's recovery and may exacerbate feelings of loneliness.
D: Administering sedative medications may address symptoms temporarily but does not address the root causes of the client's distress. It does not promote empowerment or coping skills development.
Which of the following is one way that a bariatric bed may differ from a regular bed?
A. The bed may be lower to the floor.
B. The bed may be narrower.
C. The bed may not be able to be used.
D. The bed is made for people who weigh less than average.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: The bed may be lower to the floor. Bariatric beds are designed to support heavier individuals, so they are often lower to the ground for easier access and stability. This feature helps prevent falls and injuries.
Explanation:
1. Bariatric beds are specifically designed for individuals who are obese or have a higher weight capacity.
2. Lower height reduces the risk of falls when getting in and out of bed, making it safer for patients.
3. Regular beds may not have the same weight capacity or stability features as bariatric beds.
4. Narrower beds (choice B) would not be suitable for bariatric patients who require more space and support.
5. Choice C does not provide a specific difference between a bariatric bed and a regular bed.
6. Choice D is incorrect as bariatric beds are designed for individuals who weigh more than average, not less.
The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, 'I don't need to be here' and tells the RN that she believes the television talks to her. The RN should document these assessment findings in which section of the mental status exam?
A. Level of concentration.
B. Insight and judgement.
C. Remote memory.
D. Mood and affect.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Insight and judgement. In this scenario, the client's statement "I don't need to be here" reflects insight, the ability to recognize one's own condition. Additionally, the belief that the television talks to her indicates impaired judgement, as it is a sign of a psychotic symptom. Both insight and judgement are crucial components of mental status evaluation, as they provide important information about the client's awareness and decision-making abilities.
A: Level of concentration is not directly related to the client's statements about her need to be hospitalized or the belief about the television.
C: Remote memory refers to the ability to recall past events, which is not being assessed by the client's current statements.
D: Mood and affect pertain to emotional state, which is not the primary focus of the client's statements in this case.
A man who has had gout for several years comes to the clinic with a problem with his toe. On examination, the nurse notices the presence of hard, painless nodules over the great toe; one has burst open with a chalky discharge. This finding is known as:
A. Callus.
B. Plantar wart.
C. Bunion.
D. Tophi.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Tophi. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that accumulate in the joints of individuals with chronic gout. The presence of hard, painless nodules over the great toe that burst open with a chalky discharge is a classic presentation of tophi in a patient with gout. Tophi are not painful but can cause joint deformities and damage if left untreated.
A: Callus is a thickened and hardened area of skin that forms in response to repeated pressure or friction. Calluses are not associated with gout or chalky discharge.
B: Plantar wart is a benign growth on the sole of the foot caused by a viral infection. Plantar warts do not typically present with chalky discharge or nodules.
C: Bunion is a bony bump that forms on the joint at the base of the big toe. Bunions are not associated with gout or chalky discharge.
In summary, the presence of
A nurse is assessing a child with reactive attachment disorder (RAD). Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of RAD?
A. Frequent mood swings and emotional instability.
B. Excessive fear of strangers and new situations.
C. Rapid speech and impulsivity.
D. Heightened sense of empathy and trust.
Correct answer:
Choice A rationale: Frequent mood swings and emotional instability are not typical clinical manifestations of reactive attachment disorder (RAD). RAD is characterized by difficulties forming emotional bonds, not necessarily by mood swings. Choice B rationale: Excessive fear of strangers and new situations is a common clinical manifestation of RAD. Children with RAD often have trouble trusting and forming attachments, leading to heightened anxiety and fear in unfamiliar settings or with unfamiliar people. Choice C rationale: Rapid speech and impulsivity are not typically associated with RAD. These traits might be seen in other behavioral disorders but are not primary characteristics of RAD. Choice D rationale: Heightened sense of empathy and trust is unlikely in children with RAD. They tend to have difficulties with empathy and trust due to their attachment challenges.
LPN exams mental health practice questions, set 12 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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