LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 2

LPN exams · medical-surgical

LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 2

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The physician has ordered for the client to receive a trough blood level to evaluate the therapeutic effect of an antibiotic. The nurse understands that the trough should be ordered:

  1. A. A few minutes before the next scheduled dose of medication.
  2. B. 1-2 hours after the oral administration of the medication.
  3. C. 30 minutes after the IV administration.
  4. D. During the infusion of the antibiotic.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — A few minutes before the next scheduled dose of medication.

The correct answer is A: A few minutes before the next scheduled dose of medication. This timing ensures that the trough level represents the lowest concentration of the antibiotic in the client's bloodstream, allowing for an accurate assessment of how well the medication is being metabolized and eliminated. Explanation: 1. Trough level is usually measured just before the next dose to ensure that the drug has reached its lowest concentration. 2. This timing helps determine if the drug concentration remains within the therapeutic range and if adjustments to the dosing regimen are needed. 3. Option B is incorrect because waiting 1-2 hours after oral administration would not reflect the trough level. 4. Option C is incorrect as measuring 30 minutes after IV administration would not capture the trough level accurately. 5. Option D is incorrect because measuring during infusion would not provide an accurate trough level. In summary, the trough level should be ordered just before the next dose to accurately assess the drug's concentration at its lowest point.

Question 2

Your adult patient has sustained a blunt force, closed head injury while playing football at a family reunion. Which of the following symptoms leads you to believe the patient is suffering from an epidural hematoma?

  1. A. Goose egg' noted on patient's head
  2. B. The patient is unconscious when you arrive on the scene and remains that way throughout transport
  3. C. The patient lost consciousness immediately following the injury, but regained consciousness quickly. He lost consciousness again just prior to calling 911.
  4. D. Sudden, severe headache
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — The patient lost consciousness immediately following the injury, but regained consciousness quickly. He lost consciousness again just prior to calling 911.

The correct answer is C because the patient lost consciousness immediately following the injury, then quickly regained consciousness, but lost consciousness again just before calling 911. This pattern of lucid intervals followed by a deteriorating level of consciousness is indicative of an epidural hematoma. The initial loss of consciousness is due to the initial trauma causing bleeding between the skull and the dura mater, leading to increased intracranial pressure. The temporary regaining of consciousness occurs when the hematoma temporarily stops expanding before resuming bleeding, causing a decline in consciousness again. Summary: A: A 'goose egg' noted on the patient's head is more indicative of a scalp hematoma or soft tissue injury, not necessarily an epidural hematoma. B: The patient being unconscious throughout transport could indicate a severe brain injury, but the specific pattern described in option C is more characteristic of an epidural hematoma. D: A sudden, severe headache may be a symptom of various head injuries, but it is

Question 3

The nurse teaches the female patient receiving immune modulating drugs about the need to use barrier contraceptives. The patient says, I hate using barrier contraceptives. Why can't I just take oral contraceptives? What is the nurse's best response?

  1. A. Effects of oral contraceptives may be altered by liver changes or changes in immune response.
  2. B. Oral contraceptives increase the action of immune modulating drugs so dosage needs to be reduced.
  3. C. Immune modulators make oral contraceptives ineffective because of hormonal impact of drugs.
  4. D. Oral contraceptives are acceptable if barrier contraceptives are distasteful, but only high-estrogen pills can be used.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Effects of oral contraceptives may be altered by liver changes or changes in immune response.

The correct answer is A: Effects of oral contraceptives may be altered by liver changes or changes in immune response. Rationale: 1. Immune modulating drugs can affect liver function, potentially altering the metabolism of oral contraceptives. 2. Liver changes can impact the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by either increasing or decreasing their levels in the body. 3. Changes in immune response can also interfere with the hormonal balance maintained by oral contraceptives, leading to decreased efficacy. 4. Barrier contraceptives are recommended to prevent unintended pregnancies due to the potential interactions between immune modulating drugs and oral contraceptives. Summary of other choices: B: Incorrect. Oral contraceptives do not increase the action of immune modulating drugs; they may interact with them due to changes in metabolism. C: Incorrect. Immune modulators can affect oral contraceptives through liver metabolism rather than hormonal impact. D: Incorrect. High-estrogen pills are not the only option if barrier contrace

Question 4

Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

  1. A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
  2. B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
  3. C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
  4. D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — A 65-year-old client with limited mobility

Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

Question 5

What is the main difference between the clonal selection theory proposed by MacFarlane Burnet and the selection theory proposed by Paul Ehrlich?

  1. A. Ehrlich proposed that structure complementarity between antigens and receptors is crucial for a specific response whereas Burnet overlooked the issue of specificity
  2. B. Ehrlich proposed that each cell able to produce antibodies would express several receptors, each specific for different antigens whereas Burnet proposed that each single antibody-producing cell expresses only one type of receptors
  3. C. Ehrlich thought that antibodies released from a cell were different from the receptors expressed on the same cell. Burnet thought that soluble antibodies and receptors produced by a single cell were identical
  4. D. Ehrlich's theory lacks the concept of release of a soluble form of the antigen receptor, an idea elaborated for the first time by Burnet.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Ehrlich proposed that each cell able to produce antibodies would express several receptors, each specific for different antigens whereas Burnet proposed that each single antibody-producing cell expresses only one type of receptors

The correct answer is B because Ehrlich proposed that each cell producing antibodies would express several receptors, each specific for different antigens, whereas Burnet proposed that each single antibody-producing cell expresses only one type of receptor. This is the main difference between the two theories. Ehrlich's concept of multiple receptors per cell allows for a broader range of specificity and diversity in the immune response. The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly address the main difference between the two theories as outlined above. Choice A is incorrect because both Ehrlich and Burnet emphasized the importance of specificity, but they differed in their views on receptor diversity per cell. Choice C is incorrect because it focuses on the identity of soluble antibodies and receptors, which is not the main differentiator between the two theories. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions the release of soluble antigen receptors, which is not the main point of differentiation between Ehrlich and Burnet's theories.

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Question 6

The Epidermis forms from the germ layer, while the Dermis forms from the germ layer.

  1. A. Ectoderm, Mesoderm
  2. B. Mesoderm, Ectoderm
  3. C. Endoderm, Mesoderm
  4. D. Endoderm, Ectoderm
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

A 29-year-old male is brought to the ED after being involved in a motor vehicular collision when his car struck a bridge abutment. He is intoxicated, has GCS 13, and complains of abdominal pain. His BP was 80mmHg systolic by palpation on admission, but rapidly increased to 110/70 with the administration of IV flui His heart rate is 120/min. The chest x-ray shows loss of aortic knob, widening of mediastinum, no rib fracture, and no hemopneumothorax. Contrast angiography:

  1. A. "Is not indicated"
  2. B. Should be performed after CT scan of the chest
  3. C. Is positive for aortic rupture in 80% of similar cases
  4. D. Is not necessary if the CT-scan of the chest is normal
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

A client is admitted with a burn injury that involves the epidermis and part of the dermis. The nurse knows that this type of burn is classified as:

  1. A. Superficial
  2. B. Partial-thickness
  3. C. Full-thickness
  4. D. Deep partial-thickness
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Question 9

A client is admitted with a burn injury that involves the epidermis and part of the dermis. The nurse knows that this type of burn is classified as:

  1. A. Superficial
  2. B. Partial-thickness
  3. C. Full-thickness
  4. D. Deep partial-thickness
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

The fibers important for strength in the dermis are:

  1. A. Elastic fibers
  2. B. Collagen
  3. C. Both
  4. D. None of these
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Question 11

A client is scheduled for a bone marrow aspiration. What does the client's nurse do before taking the client to the treatment room for the biopsy?

  1. A. Cleans the biopsy site with an antiseptic or povidone-iodine (Betadine)
  2. B. Holds the client's hand and asks about concerns
  3. C. Reviews the client's platelet (thrombocyte) count
  4. D. Verifies that the client has given informed consent
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

Your adult patient has sustained a blunt force, closed head injury while playing football at a family reunion. Which of the following symptoms leads you to believe the patient is suffering from an epidural hematoma?

  1. A. Goose egg' noted on patient's head
  2. B. The patient is unconscious when you arrive on the scene and remains that way throughout transport
  3. C. The patient lost consciousness immediately following the injury, but regained consciousness quickly. He lost consciousness again just prior to calling 911.
  4. D. Sudden, severe headache
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

The fibers important for strength in the dermis are:

  1. A. Elastic fibers
  2. B. Collagen
  3. C. Both
  4. D. None of these
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

The fibers important for strength in the dermis are:

  1. A. Elastic fibers
  2. B. Collagen
  3. C. Both
  4. D. None of these
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

What is the primary characteristic of an autoimmune disease?

  1. A. The immune system fails to recognize foreign pathogens.
  2. B. The immune system attacks the body's own healthy tissues.
  3. C. The immune system is overactive and produces excessive antibodies.
  4. D. The immune system is suppressed and cannot fight infections effectively.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these LPN exams medical-surgical questions

LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.