LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 6

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LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questions set 6

You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five gastrointestinal questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A 56-year-old Brazilian woman with a history of idiopathic cardiomyopathy presents complaining of weight loss, dysphagia, and regurgitation. A chest x-ray is done that reveals an air-fluid level at the level of the esophagus. No gastric bubble is appreciated. A barium swallow reveals a dilated esophagus that tapers at the lower esophageal sphincter. Which of the following is appropriate in this patient's evaluation/treatment?

  1. A. Refer for partial esophagectomy
  2. B. Thick and thin smears of peripheral blood looking for parasites
  3. C. Therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor
  4. D. Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi

The correct answer is D: Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi. This patient's presentation is consistent with Chagas disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. The patient is from Brazil, where Chagas disease is endemic. The dilated esophagus and lower esophageal sphincter tapering are classic findings of megaesophagus, a complication of Chagas disease. Serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi are necessary for definitive diagnosis. Choice A: Refer for partial esophagectomy - Not appropriate as surgery is not indicated without confirming the diagnosis. Choice B: Thick and thin smears of peripheral blood looking for parasites - Not appropriate as Chagas disease is diagnosed through serologic testing, not blood smears. Choice C: Therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor - Not appropriate as the patient's symptoms are likely due to Chagas disease, not gastroesophageal reflux disease.

Question 2

A 42-year-old accountant is referred to your office for evaluation of progressive weight loss. He has lost 20 pounds over the last 6 months. He has a long history (16 years) of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. He denies alcohol abuse but admits to heavy smoking (2 packs of cigarettes per day for 20 years). Three days ago he noticed that his urine became dark and that his skin started to itch. He had a CT scan of the abdomen last week that revealed fullness in the head of the pancreas with dilatation of intra- and extrahepatic biliary ducts. The CT scan did not demonstrate a discrete mass in the pancreas or liver, gallstones, or pancreatitis. His physical examination is normal except for obvious jaundice. His blood work reveals WBC count 6.4, total bilirubin 5.7 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 340 U/L, amylase 64 U/L, and lipase 47 U/L. Which of the following tests would you order next?

  1. A. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy (HIDA-scan)
  2. B. Abdominal ultrasound
  3. C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
  4. D. Transcutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

The correct answer is C: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). ERCP is the next appropriate step for this patient due to the presence of jaundice, dark urine, and dilatation of the biliary ducts on CT scan, which indicate a likely biliary obstruction. ERCP allows direct visualization of the biliary tree and pancreatic duct, as well as therapeutic interventions such as stent placement or stone removal. This procedure can help identify the cause of the jaundice and guide further management. Choice A (Hepatobiliary scintigraphy) is used to evaluate gallbladder function but is not the most appropriate test in this scenario where biliary obstruction is suspected. Choice B (Abdominal ultrasound) can help identify biliary dilatation but does not provide direct visualization or therapeutic options like ERCP. Choice D (Transcutaneous transhepatic cholangiography) is an invasive test that is typically reserved

Question 3

A 50-year-old woman presents with nocturnal pruritus, an elevated alkaline phosphatase of 284 U/L, and normal bilirubin and aminotransferases. She is on no medications and has a normal physical examination. Ultrasound of the liver reveals no ductal abnormalities and no gallstones. What should be the next step?

  1. A. Request an ERCP
  2. B. Obtain a CT scan
  3. C. Check viral serologies
  4. D. Check antimitochondrial antibodies
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Check antimitochondrial antibodies

The correct answer is D: Check antimitochondrial antibodies. Rationale: 1. The patient's presentation of elevated alkaline phosphatase without bilirubin or aminotransferase elevation suggests a cholestatic pattern of liver injury. 2. Cholestatic pattern with elevated alkaline phosphatase in the setting of a normal physical exam and ultrasound with no ductal abnormalities points towards primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). 3. Antimitochondrial antibodies are highly specific for PBC and should be checked to confirm the diagnosis. 4. Requesting an ERCP is invasive and not indicated at this point. CT scan may not provide relevant information for this specific presentation. Checking viral serologies is not indicated based on the clinical presentation. Summary: A: Requesting an ERCP is not the next step. B: Obtaining a CT scan may not provide relevant information. C: Checking viral serologies is not indicated at this point.

Question 4

What is the primary reason that extracellular fluid volume must be closely regulated?

  1. A. to maintain blood pressure
  2. B. to maintain adequate urine formation
  3. C. to prevent changes in ICF osmolarity
  4. D. to prevent cells from swelling or shrinking
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — to maintain blood pressure

The correct answer is A: to maintain blood pressure. Extracellular fluid volume regulation is crucial for maintaining blood pressure within a normal range. Any imbalance in extracellular fluid volume can lead to changes in blood pressure, potentially causing issues like hypotension or hypertension. Adequate blood pressure is necessary for proper perfusion of organs and tissues. Choice B (to maintain adequate urine formation) is incorrect because extracellular fluid volume regulation primarily affects blood pressure, not urine formation. Choice C (to prevent changes in ICF osmolarity) is incorrect because extracellular fluid volume regulation does not directly impact intracellular fluid osmolarity. Choice D (to prevent cells from swelling or shrinking) is incorrect because intracellular fluid volume regulation, not extracellular fluid volume, is primarily responsible for preventing cellular swelling or shrinking.

Question 5

The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse expect to take first?

  1. A. Monitor ionized calcium level.
  2. B. Give oral calcium citrate tablets.
  3. C. Check parathyroid hormone level.
  4. D. Administer vitamin D supplements.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Monitor ionized calcium level.

The correct answer is A: Monitor ionized calcium level. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Monitoring ionized calcium level is crucial to assess the patient's current calcium status accurately. 2. In chronic malnutrition, there may be alterations in protein binding of calcium, affecting total calcium levels. 3. Ionized calcium is the physiologically active form and provides a more accurate reflection of calcium status. 4. This action helps guide further interventions and treatment based on the actual calcium levels. Summary: - Choice B: Giving oral calcium citrate tablets may not be appropriate without knowing the patient's ionized calcium level. - Choice C: Checking parathyroid hormone level may be relevant but is not the immediate priority. - Choice D: Administering vitamin D supplements may be beneficial in the long term but does not address the immediate need to assess the patient's calcium status accurately.

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Question 6

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a massive burn injury and possible

  1. A. Which assessment data should be of most concern to the nurse?
  2. B. Urine output is 30 mL/hr.
  3. C. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
  4. D. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for 8 hours.
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Question 7

In most regions of the GI tract (exceptions are oral cavity and stomach), smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis are arranged into:

  1. A. inner circular and outer longitudinal layers
  2. B. outer circular and inner longitudinal layers
  3. C. circular and longitudinal layers whose relative position varies from region to region
  4. D. an interwoven meshwork of circular and longitudinal muscle fibers
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Question 8

A client with pancreatitis experiences a seizure due to alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should a nurse consider to minimize the risk for injury?

  1. A. Initiate precautions by restraining the client
  2. B. Observe the client throughout the seizure
  3. C. Administer oxygen throughout the seizure
  4. D. Administer an analgesic during the seizure
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Question 9

Which of the following statements about non-expansion states is/are true, according to the CRS’s overview of Medicaid expansion?

  1. A. Medicaid income eligibility for parents in all non-expansion states starts from 100% FPL.
  2. B. In most non-expansion states, adults without dependent children are not eligible for Medicaid.
  3. C. In 2019, over half of the individuals in the coverage gap were from Texas and Florida.
  4. D. Non-expansion states have the same FMAP rate as expansion states.
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Question 10

In most regions of the GI tract (exceptions are oral cavity and stomach), smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis are arranged into:

  1. A. inner circular and outer longitudinal layers
  2. B. outer circular and inner longitudinal layers
  3. C. circular and longitudinal layers whose relative position varies from region to region
  4. D. an interwoven meshwork of circular and longitudinal muscle fibers
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Question 11

Which two regions of a tooth contain living cells?

  1. A. dentin and enamel
  2. B. anatomical crown and cementum
  3. C. enamel and cementum
  4. D. dentin and cementum
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Question 12

Once absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine, free fatty acids and glycerol are recombined and a protein coat is added to form a

  1. A. chylomicron.
  2. B. micelle.
  3. C. lipoprotein.
  4. D. fatty droplet.
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Question 13

A nurse on the day shift is preparing to change a client's total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution, but the new TPN solution has not arrived from the pharmacy. The client receives additional IV fat emulsion during the night shift. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. A. Hang dextrose 10% in water (D10W) until the TPN solution is delivered.
  2. B. Saline lock the IV catheter after discontinuing the TPN solution.
  3. C. Hang the IV fat emulsion solution.
  4. D. Call the provider for new TPN orders.
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Question 14

When considering tube feedings for a patient with severe protein-calorie malnutrition, what is an advantage of a gastrostomy tube versus a nasogastric (NG) tube?

  1. A. There is less irritation to the nasal and esophageal mucosa.
  2. B. The patient experiences the sights and smells associated with eating.
  3. C. Aspiration resulting from reflux of formulas into the esophagus is less common.
  4. D. Routine checking for placement is not required because gastrostomy tubes do not become displaced.
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Question 15

Which of the following is an opening in the large bowel created by bringing a section of the large intestine out to the abdomen and fashioning a stoma?

  1. A. Continent ileostomy
  2. B. Colostomy
  3. C. Ileostomy
  4. D. Ileoanal reservoir
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About these LPN exams gastrointestinal questions

LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.