LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 6
LPN exams · gastrointestinal
LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questionsset 6
You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five gastrointestinal questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 56-year-old Brazilian woman with a history of idiopathic cardiomyopathy presents complaining of weight loss, dysphagia, and regurgitation. A chest x-ray is done that reveals an air-fluid level at the level of the esophagus. No gastric bubble is appreciated. A barium swallow reveals a dilated esophagus that tapers at the lower esophageal sphincter. Which of the following is appropriate in this patient's evaluation/treatment?
A. Refer for partial esophagectomy
B. Thick and thin smears of peripheral blood looking for parasites
C. Therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor
D. Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi
The correct answer is D: Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi. This patient's presentation is consistent with Chagas disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. The patient is from Brazil, where Chagas disease is endemic. The dilated esophagus and lower esophageal sphincter tapering are classic findings of megaesophagus, a complication of Chagas disease. Serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi are necessary for definitive diagnosis.
Choice A: Refer for partial esophagectomy - Not appropriate as surgery is not indicated without confirming the diagnosis.
Choice B: Thick and thin smears of peripheral blood looking for parasites - Not appropriate as Chagas disease is diagnosed through serologic testing, not blood smears.
Choice C: Therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor - Not appropriate as the patient's symptoms are likely due to Chagas disease, not gastroesophageal reflux disease.
Question 2
A 42-year-old accountant is referred to your office for evaluation of progressive weight loss. He has lost 20 pounds over the last 6 months. He has a long history (16 years) of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. He denies alcohol abuse but admits to heavy smoking (2 packs of cigarettes per day for 20 years). Three days ago he noticed that his urine became dark and that his skin started to itch. He had a CT scan of the abdomen last week that revealed fullness in the head of the pancreas with dilatation of intra- and extrahepatic biliary ducts. The CT scan did not demonstrate a discrete mass in the pancreas or liver, gallstones, or pancreatitis. His physical examination is normal except for obvious jaundice. His blood work reveals WBC count 6.4, total bilirubin 5.7 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 340 U/L, amylase 64 U/L, and lipase 47 U/L. Which of the following tests would you order next?
A. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy (HIDA-scan)
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
D. Transcutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
The correct answer is C: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). ERCP is the next appropriate step for this patient due to the presence of jaundice, dark urine, and dilatation of the biliary ducts on CT scan, which indicate a likely biliary obstruction. ERCP allows direct visualization of the biliary tree and pancreatic duct, as well as therapeutic interventions such as stent placement or stone removal. This procedure can help identify the cause of the jaundice and guide further management.
Choice A (Hepatobiliary scintigraphy) is used to evaluate gallbladder function but is not the most appropriate test in this scenario where biliary obstruction is suspected. Choice B (Abdominal ultrasound) can help identify biliary dilatation but does not provide direct visualization or therapeutic options like ERCP. Choice D (Transcutaneous transhepatic cholangiography) is an invasive test that is typically reserved
Question 3
A 50-year-old woman presents with nocturnal pruritus, an elevated alkaline phosphatase of 284 U/L, and normal bilirubin and aminotransferases. She is on no medications and has a normal physical examination. Ultrasound of the liver reveals no ductal abnormalities and no gallstones. What should be the next step?
A. Request an ERCP
B. Obtain a CT scan
C. Check viral serologies
D. Check antimitochondrial antibodies
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Check antimitochondrial antibodies
The correct answer is D: Check antimitochondrial antibodies.
Rationale:
1. The patient's presentation of elevated alkaline phosphatase without bilirubin or aminotransferase elevation suggests a cholestatic pattern of liver injury.
2. Cholestatic pattern with elevated alkaline phosphatase in the setting of a normal physical exam and ultrasound with no ductal abnormalities points towards primary biliary cholangitis (PBC).
3. Antimitochondrial antibodies are highly specific for PBC and should be checked to confirm the diagnosis.
4. Requesting an ERCP is invasive and not indicated at this point. CT scan may not provide relevant information for this specific presentation. Checking viral serologies is not indicated based on the clinical presentation.
Summary:
A: Requesting an ERCP is not the next step.
B: Obtaining a CT scan may not provide relevant information.
C: Checking viral serologies is not indicated at this point.
Question 4
What is the primary reason that extracellular fluid volume must be closely regulated?
A. to maintain blood pressure
B. to maintain adequate urine formation
C. to prevent changes in ICF osmolarity
D. to prevent cells from swelling or shrinking
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — to maintain blood pressure
The correct answer is A: to maintain blood pressure. Extracellular fluid volume regulation is crucial for maintaining blood pressure within a normal range. Any imbalance in extracellular fluid volume can lead to changes in blood pressure, potentially causing issues like hypotension or hypertension. Adequate blood pressure is necessary for proper perfusion of organs and tissues.
Choice B (to maintain adequate urine formation) is incorrect because extracellular fluid volume regulation primarily affects blood pressure, not urine formation. Choice C (to prevent changes in ICF osmolarity) is incorrect because extracellular fluid volume regulation does not directly impact intracellular fluid osmolarity. Choice D (to prevent cells from swelling or shrinking) is incorrect because intracellular fluid volume regulation, not extracellular fluid volume, is primarily responsible for preventing cellular swelling or shrinking.
Question 5
The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse expect to take first?
A. Monitor ionized calcium level.
B. Give oral calcium citrate tablets.
C. Check parathyroid hormone level.
D. Administer vitamin D supplements.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Monitor ionized calcium level.
The correct answer is A: Monitor ionized calcium level.
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Monitoring ionized calcium level is crucial to assess the patient's current calcium status accurately.
2. In chronic malnutrition, there may be alterations in protein binding of calcium, affecting total calcium levels.
3. Ionized calcium is the physiologically active form and provides a more accurate reflection of calcium status.
4. This action helps guide further interventions and treatment based on the actual calcium levels.
Summary:
- Choice B: Giving oral calcium citrate tablets may not be appropriate without knowing the patient's ionized calcium level.
- Choice C: Checking parathyroid hormone level may be relevant but is not the immediate priority.
- Choice D: Administering vitamin D supplements may be beneficial in the long term but does not address the immediate need to assess the patient's calcium status accurately.
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Question 6
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a massive burn injury and possible
A. Which assessment data should be of most concern to the nurse?
B. Urine output is 30 mL/hr.
C. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
D. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for 8 hours.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because in a patient with a massive burn injury, the most concerning assessment data would be related to the extent and depth of the burns, the presence of airway compromise, and signs of infection or sepsis. These factors can significantly impact the patient's prognosis and require immediate intervention.
Choice B is not the most concerning as urine output of 30 mL/hr may be expected in a burn patient due to fluid shifts and decreased perfusion.
Choice C indicates hypotension, which is concerning but not as immediate as assessing the extent and severity of the burns.
Choice D, while indicating inadequate fluid intake, is not the most critical assessment in this scenario compared to evaluating the burn injury itself and potential complications.
Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it focuses on the most critical aspect of care for a patient with a massive burn injury.
In most regions of the GI tract (exceptions are oral cavity and stomach), smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis are arranged into:
A. inner circular and outer longitudinal layers
B. outer circular and inner longitudinal layers
C. circular and longitudinal layers whose relative position varies from region to region
D. an interwoven meshwork of circular and longitudinal muscle fibers
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because in most regions of the GI tract, the smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis are arranged into inner circular and outer longitudinal layers. This arrangement allows for peristalsis, the coordinated contraction and relaxation of the muscles to move food along the digestive tract. The inner circular layer constricts the lumen, while the outer longitudinal layer shortens the tube. This arrangement is consistent throughout the GI tract to facilitate the smooth movement of food.
Choice B is incorrect because the outer circular and inner longitudinal layers are not the typical arrangement in the GI tract. Choice C is incorrect because although there are circular and longitudinal layers, their relative position does not vary significantly from region to region. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a meshwork pattern which is not typical of the muscularis arrangement in the GI tract.
A client with pancreatitis experiences a seizure due to alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should a nurse consider to minimize the risk for injury?
A. Initiate precautions by restraining the client
B. Observe the client throughout the seizure
C. Administer oxygen throughout the seizure
D. Administer an analgesic during the seizure
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Administer oxygen throughout the seizure. Oxygen administration is crucial during a seizure to maintain oxygenation and prevent hypoxia. Hypoxia can exacerbate brain damage in clients experiencing seizures. Administering oxygen helps ensure adequate oxygen supply to the brain and other vital organs, reducing the risk of injury.
A: Initiate precautions by restraining the client - Restraint can increase the risk of injury and worsen the seizure.
B: Observe the client throughout the seizure - While important, simply observing the client does not actively prevent injury during the seizure.
D: Administer an analgesic during the seizure - Analgesics are not indicated during a seizure and may not address the risk for injury.
Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention to minimize the risk for injury during a seizure in a client with pancreatitis and alcohol withdrawal.
Which of the following statements about non-expansion states is/are true, according to the CRS’s overview of Medicaid expansion?
A. Medicaid income eligibility for parents in all non-expansion states starts from 100% FPL.
B. In most non-expansion states, adults without dependent children are not eligible for Medicaid.
C. In 2019, over half of the individuals in the coverage gap were from Texas and Florida.
D. Non-expansion states have the same FMAP rate as expansion states.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. The Federal Medical Assistance Percentage (FMAP) rate refers to the share of Medicaid expenses paid by the federal government. Non-expansion states have the same FMAP rate as expansion states, as mandated by federal law. This is to ensure that states that did not expand Medicaid still receive the same federal funding support for their Medicaid programs as the expansion states.
A: This statement is incorrect because Medicaid income eligibility for parents in non-expansion states varies and is not necessarily set at 100% of the Federal Poverty Level (FPL).
B: This statement is incorrect because eligibility criteria for adults without dependent children in non-expansion states vary and may differ from state to state.
C: This statement is incorrect because the distribution of individuals in the coverage gap varies among non-expansion states, not just limited to Texas and Florida.
In most regions of the GI tract (exceptions are oral cavity and stomach), smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis are arranged into:
A. inner circular and outer longitudinal layers
B. outer circular and inner longitudinal layers
C. circular and longitudinal layers whose relative position varies from region to region
D. an interwoven meshwork of circular and longitudinal muscle fibers
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because in most regions of the GI tract, the smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis are arranged into inner circular and outer longitudinal layers. This arrangement allows for peristalsis, the coordinated contraction and relaxation of the muscles to move food along the digestive tract. The inner circular layer constricts the lumen, while the outer longitudinal layer shortens the tube. This arrangement is consistent throughout the GI tract to facilitate the smooth movement of food.
Choice B is incorrect because the outer circular and inner longitudinal layers are not the typical arrangement in the GI tract. Choice C is incorrect because although there are circular and longitudinal layers, their relative position does not vary significantly from region to region. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a meshwork pattern which is not typical of the muscularis arrangement in the GI tract.
Which two regions of a tooth contain living cells?
A. dentin and enamel
B. anatomical crown and cementum
C. enamel and cementum
D. dentin and cementum
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. Dentin and cementum are the two regions of a tooth that contain living cells. Dentin is the hard tissue beneath the enamel and cementum that forms the bulk of the tooth structure. It contains living cells called odontoblasts responsible for dentin formation. Cementum is the hard tissue covering the tooth root and is essential for anchoring the tooth in the jawbone. Cementum contains living cells called cementoblasts responsible for cementum formation. Therefore, both dentin and cementum are vital regions of a tooth that house living cells involved in tooth development and maintenance.
A: Dentin and enamel - Enamel is the outermost layer of the tooth and does not contain living cells.
B: Anatomical crown and cementum - Anatomical crown is not a region of the tooth containing living cells.
C: Enamel and cementum - Enamel does not contain living cells, only mineralized structures.
Once absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine, free fatty acids and glycerol are recombined and a protein coat is added to form a
A. chylomicron.
B. micelle.
C. lipoprotein.
D. fatty droplet.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: chylomicron. After absorption, free fatty acids and glycerol are recombined in the epithelial cell to form triglycerides. These triglycerides are then packaged with proteins to form chylomicrons, which are lipoprotein particles that transport dietary fats through the lymphatic system and bloodstream. Chylomicrons are essential for the absorption of dietary fats and fat-soluble vitamins.
Summary:
- B: Micelle is incorrect because micelles are formed in the lumen of the small intestine to aid in the absorption of lipids but do not involve recombination of fatty acids and glycerol.
- C: Lipoprotein is incorrect because while chylomicrons are a type of lipoprotein, the specific process described in the question is not about general lipoprotein formation.
- D: Fatty droplet is incorrect as it does not involve the recombination and protein coating process described in the question.
A nurse on the day shift is preparing to change a client's total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution, but the new TPN solution has not arrived from the pharmacy. The client receives additional IV fat emulsion during the night shift. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Hang dextrose 10% in water (D10W) until the TPN solution is delivered.
B. Saline lock the IV catheter after discontinuing the TPN solution.
C. Hang the IV fat emulsion solution.
D. Call the provider for new TPN orders.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Hang dextrose 10% in water (D10W) until the TPN solution is delivered. This is the correct action because the client is dependent on TPN for nutrition and cannot go without it. D10W provides a source of glucose to prevent hypoglycemia until the TPN solution arrives. It is important to maintain the client's glucose levels to prevent complications.
Choice B is incorrect because saline locking the IV catheter would not address the client's nutritional needs.
Choice C is incorrect because hanging the IV fat emulsion solution alone would not provide the necessary nutrients that the client needs from the TPN solution.
Choice D is incorrect because calling the provider for new TPN orders would delay the client from receiving essential nutrition. Hanging D10W is the most appropriate action to ensure the client's safety and well-being while waiting for the TPN solution to arrive.
When considering tube feedings for a patient with severe protein-calorie malnutrition, what is an advantage of a gastrostomy tube versus a nasogastric (NG) tube?
A. There is less irritation to the nasal and esophageal mucosa.
B. The patient experiences the sights and smells associated with eating.
C. Aspiration resulting from reflux of formulas into the esophagus is less common.
D. Routine checking for placement is not required because gastrostomy tubes do not become displaced.
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why option A is correct:
1. Gastrostomy tube is inserted directly into the stomach, bypassing the esophagus, reducing irritation to nasal and esophageal mucosa.
2. NG tube goes through the nose, potentially causing irritation and discomfort to the mucosa.
3. In severe protein-calorie malnutrition, preservation of mucosal integrity is crucial for nutrient absorption.
4. Hence, choosing a gastrostomy tube minimizes additional stress on already compromised mucosa.
Summary of why other options are incorrect:
- Option B: The sensory experience of eating is unrelated to the nutritional benefits of tube feeding.
- Option C: Aspiration risk is not directly affected by the type of tube used but rather by proper feeding techniques and patient positioning.
- Option D: All feeding tubes require periodic checking for placement to prevent complications, including gastrostomy tubes.
Which of the following is an opening in the large bowel created by bringing a section of the large intestine out to the abdomen and fashioning a stoma?
A. Continent ileostomy
B. Colostomy
C. Ileostomy
D. Ileoanal reservoir
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Colostomy. A colostomy is an opening in the large bowel created by bringing a section of the large intestine out to the abdomen to form a stoma. This procedure is typically done to divert stool in cases of colorectal diseases or surgeries.
A: Continent ileostomy - This choice is incorrect because a continent ileostomy involves creating a pouch inside the body to collect waste, rather than bringing a section of the large intestine out to the abdomen.
C: Ileostomy - This choice is incorrect because an ileostomy involves bringing the end of the small intestine out to the abdomen to create a stoma, not a section of the large intestine.
D: Ileoanal reservoir - This choice is incorrect as it refers to a surgical procedure where the colon and rectum are removed, and a pouch is created from the small intestine to restore bowel function, not to create a stoma in the large bowel.
LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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