LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 7
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LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questionsset 7
You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five gastrointestinal questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Alcoholic hepatitis typically has an AST/ALT ratio less than 2
B. Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is associated with arteriovenous malformations of the brain
C. Serum A1AT levels are diagnostic of A1AT deficiency
D. Hepatitis A infection may have a relapsing course
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Hepatitis A infection may have a relapsing course
The correct answer is D: Hepatitis A infection may have a relapsing course. Hepatitis A infection can indeed have a relapsing course, with symptoms recurring after an initial improvement. This is due to the nature of the virus and the immune response.
A: Alcoholic hepatitis typically has an AST/ALT ratio less than 2 - This statement is incorrect because in alcoholic hepatitis, the AST/ALT ratio is typically greater than 2.
B: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is associated with arteriovenous malformations of the brain - This statement is incorrect as A1AT deficiency is primarily associated with pulmonary manifestations such as emphysema and liver disease, not brain arteriovenous malformations.
C: Serum A1AT levels are diagnostic of A1AT deficiency - This is incorrect as A1AT levels can be influenced by various factors and genetic testing is needed for a definitive diagnosis of A1AT deficiency
Question 2
The nurse has completed initial instruction with a patient regarding a weight-loss program. Which patient comment indicates to the nurse that the teaching has been effective?
A. I will keep a diary of daily weight to illustrate my weight loss.'Â
B. I plan to lose 4 lb a week until I have lost the 60 lb I want to lose.'Â
C. I should not exercise more than what is required so I don't increase my appetite.'Â
D. I plan to join a behavior modification group to help establish long-term behavior changes.'Â
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — I plan to join a behavior modification group to help establish long-term behavior changes.'Â
The correct answer is D because it demonstrates the patient's understanding of the importance of behavior modification for long-term weight loss success. By joining a behavior modification group, the patient shows a commitment to changing habits and lifestyle, which is crucial for sustained weight loss.
Choice A focuses on tracking weight loss progress, which is important but does not necessarily indicate a deep understanding of behavior change. Choice B sets unrealistic weight loss goals that may not be safe or sustainable. Choice C shows a misconception about exercise and appetite, indicating a potential misunderstanding of weight loss principles.
In summary, choice D is correct because it reflects a holistic approach to weight loss that includes addressing behavior patterns, while the other choices either focus on surface-level strategies or misunderstand key concepts related to weight loss.
Question 3
An older patient reports chronic constipation. To promote bowel evacuation, when should the nurse suggest that the patient attempt defecation?
A. In the mi
B. afternoon
C. After eating breakfast
D. Right after awakening in the morning
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Right after awakening in the morning
The correct answer is D: Right after awakening in the morning. This is because the gastrocolic reflex is most active in the morning, leading to increased bowel motility. This reflex is triggered by the presence of food in the stomach and helps facilitate bowel evacuation. Attempting defecation in the morning takes advantage of this natural reflex, making it easier for the patient to have a bowel movement.
A: In the middle of the night - Incorrect. Bowel motility is typically lowest during nighttime hours, making it less likely for the patient to have a successful bowel movement.
B: In the afternoon - Incorrect. Bowel motility tends to decrease throughout the day, making it less optimal for promoting bowel evacuation.
C: After eating breakfast - Incorrect. While eating can stimulate bowel movement, the gastrocolic reflex is most active in the morning, making this a suboptimal time for defecation.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after a traditional cholecystectomy. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?
A. Prone
B. Semi-Fowler's
C. Supported Sims'
D. Dorsal recumbent
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Semi-Fowler's
The correct answer is B: Semi-Fowler's position. After a traditional cholecystectomy, placing the client in a Semi-Fowler's position (head of the bed elevated at 30-45 degrees) helps promote lung expansion, improve breathing, and reduce the risk of aspiration. This position also helps with comfort and aids in preventing complications such as respiratory issues and surgical site complications.
A: Prone position is incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach and is not appropriate for a client after cholecystectomy due to the risk of putting pressure on the abdomen and surgical site.
C: Supported Sims' position is incorrect as it is typically used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for post-cholecystectomy care.
D: Dorsal recumbent position is incorrect as it involves lying on the back with knees flexed, which may not provide optimal support and comfort for a client post-cholecystectomy.
Question 5
Which information will the nurse provide for a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A. Peppermint tea may reduce your symptoms.
B. Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks.
C. You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion.
D. Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks.
The correct answer is B: Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks. Elevating the head of the bed can help prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus during sleep, reducing nighttime symptoms of GERD. This position helps gravity keep the acid in the stomach.
A: Peppermint tea may actually worsen GERD symptoms as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing acid to reflux back into the esophagus.
C: Avoiding eating between meals will not reduce acid secretion and may even lead to larger meals, which can trigger reflux symptoms.
D: Vigorous physical activities can worsen GERD symptoms by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, pushing stomach contents back up into the esophagus.
In summary, the correct answer is B because it directly addresses a practical measure to alleviate GERD symptoms during sleep, while the other choices do not effectively manage the condition.
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Question 6
How should the nurse explain esomeprazole (Nexium) to a patient with recurring heartburn?
A. It reduces gastroesophageal reflux by increasing the rate of gastric emptying.
B. It neutralizes stomach acid and provides relief of symptoms in a few minutes.
C. It coats and protects the lining of the stomach and esophagus from gastric acid.
D. It treats gastroesophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because esomeprazole (Nexium) is a proton pump inhibitor that works by decreasing stomach acid production, thereby treating gastroesophageal reflux disease. This explanation is important for the patient to understand the mechanism of action of the medication.
Choice A is incorrect because esomeprazole does not increase the rate of gastric emptying; instead, it reduces acid production. Choice B is incorrect because esomeprazole does not neutralize stomach acid immediately; it takes a few days to reach its full effect. Choice C is incorrect because esomeprazole does not coat and protect the stomach and esophagus; it works by reducing acid production.
In summary, the correct answer is D because it accurately describes how esomeprazole works to manage recurring heartburn by decreasing stomach acid production, which is essential for treating gastroesophageal reflux disease.
A. Alcoholic hepatitis typically has an AST/ALT ratio less than 2
B. Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is associated with arteriovenous malformations of the brain
C. Serum A1AT levels are diagnostic of A1AT deficiency
D. Hepatitis A infection may have a relapsing course
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Hepatitis A infection may have a relapsing course. Hepatitis A infection can indeed have a relapsing course, with symptoms recurring after an initial improvement. This is due to the nature of the virus and the immune response.
A: Alcoholic hepatitis typically has an AST/ALT ratio less than 2 - This statement is incorrect because in alcoholic hepatitis, the AST/ALT ratio is typically greater than 2.
B: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is associated with arteriovenous malformations of the brain - This statement is incorrect as A1AT deficiency is primarily associated with pulmonary manifestations such as emphysema and liver disease, not brain arteriovenous malformations.
C: Serum A1AT levels are diagnostic of A1AT deficiency - This is incorrect as A1AT levels can be influenced by various factors and genetic testing is needed for a definitive diagnosis of A1AT deficiency
A nurse is caring for four clients in the medical-surgical inpatient unit. One is a Black woman who has been admitted with pancreatitis, another is a White man who has been admitted with acute low back pain, the third is a Black man with pneumonia, and the fourth is a White woman who has been admitted with cholecystitis. The nurse medicates the Black woman with one oral Percocet tab for 8/10 pain, medicates the White man with two oxycodone tabs for 7/10 pain, does not medicate the Black man as he does not have current pain, and medicates the White woman with 2 mg of IV morphine for 8/10 pain. What is this an example of?
A. Explicit racism
B. Implicit bias
C. Professional standard of care
D. Structural racism
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Implicit bias. Implicit bias refers to unconscious attitudes or stereotypes that affect our actions and decisions. In this scenario, the nurse's decision to medicate the Black woman with less potent pain medication compared to the White man with more potent pain medication could be influenced by implicit bias. The nurse may have assumed the Black woman needs less pain relief or may have unconsciously prioritized the White man's pain over hers. This highlights how biases can impact healthcare decisions.
Summary:
A: Explicit racism is not demonstrated in the scenario as there is no overt discrimination based on race.
C: Professional standard of care could be argued, but the unequal treatment based on race suggests bias rather than following professional standards.
D: Structural racism involves systemic inequalities, which are not directly evident in this scenario.
A client returns from surgery with a sigmoid colostomy. An ostomy appliance is attached. The priority nursing diagnosis for daily observation and care is:
A. Diarrhea related to alteration in bowel elimination.
B. Impaired skin integrity related to seepage.
C. Impaired nutrition: More than body requirements related to high-fat diet.
D. Impaired physical mobility related to surgical procedure.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Impaired skin integrity related to seepage. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because a colostomy appliance can lead to skin breakdown due to seepage of stool, which can cause irritation and skin breakdown. Maintaining skin integrity is crucial to prevent infection and promote healing.
A: Diarrhea is not the priority as it is a common issue after colostomy surgery but can be managed with appropriate interventions.
C: Impaired nutrition is not the priority as it is not specifically related to the immediate care of the colostomy appliance.
D: Impaired physical mobility is not the priority as it is not directly related to the immediate care of the colostomy appliance.
In summary, choice B is the correct answer because maintaining skin integrity is essential for the client's well-being and to prevent complications associated with a colostomy appliance.
After eating, a patient with an inflamed gallbladder experiences pain caused by contraction of the gallbladder. What is the mechanism responsible for this action?
A. Production of bile by the liver
B. Production of secretin by the duodenum
C. Release of gastrin from the stomach antrum
D. Production of cholecystokinin by the duodenum
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Production of cholecystokinin by the duodenum. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of fatty acids and amino acids. It stimulates the gallbladder to contract, causing the release of bile into the small intestine to aid in digestion. This is directly related to the patient's symptoms of gallbladder pain after eating, as the contraction of the gallbladder is triggered by CCK.
A: Production of bile by the liver is not the mechanism responsible for the gallbladder contraction.
B: Production of secretin by the duodenum is involved in regulating the pH of the duodenum, not gallbladder contraction.
C: Release of gastrin from the stomach antrum is related to stomach acid secretion, not gallbladder contraction.
In summary, the correct answer, D, is directly related to the mechanism responsible for gallbladder pain after eating,
Which measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population?
A. The Dietary Reference Intakes, as they provide a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada
B. The Tolerable Upper Intake levels, as they indicate the maximum daily amount of a nutrient considered safe for most healthy people
C. The Estimated Average Requirements, as they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient needed to maintain a specific function in half of the healthy individuals of a population
D. The Recommended Dietary Allowances, as they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy individuals
Correct answer:
The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are the best measure to describe the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. RDAs represent the average daily intake level that meets the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97-98%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. Choice A, the Dietary Reference Intakes, provide a set of nutrient intake values but do not specifically address the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate for practically all individuals. Choice B, the Tolerable Upper Intake levels, focus on the maximum daily amount of a nutrient deemed safe for most healthy people, not the average daily amount needed. Choice C, the Estimated Average Requirements, reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient needed by half of the healthy individuals, which is not as comprehensive as the RDAs that cater to nearly all healthy people.
Following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what should the nurse expect to be part of the plan of care?
A. Return to work in 2 to 3 weeks
B. Be hospitalized for 3 to 5 days postoperatively
C. Have a T-tube placed in the common bile duct to provide bile drainage
D. Have up to four small abdominal incisions covered with small dressings
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient typically has up to four small abdominal incisions that are covered with small dressings. This is because laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a minimally invasive procedure involving small incisions, which do not require extensive wound care. The incisions are small and usually heal well with minimal scarring.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Return to work in 2 to 3 weeks - This is not part of the immediate postoperative plan of care. Patients may need more time to recover before returning to work.
B: Be hospitalized for 3 to 5 days postoperatively - Patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy typically have a shorter hospital stay, usually 1 to 2 days, not 3 to 5 days.
C: Have a T-tube placed in the common bile duct to provide bile drainage - This is not typically done after a laparoscopic
A male client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse position the client for this test initially?
A. Lying on the right side with legs straight
B. Lying on the left side with knees bent
C. Prone with the torso elevated
D. Bent over with hands touching the floor
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Lying on the left side with knees bent. This position allows for better visualization and access to the colon during the colonoscopy procedure. By lying on the left side, the client's colon is in a more optimal position for the scope to navigate through the colon. Additionally, bending the knees helps to relax the abdominal muscles and make the procedure more comfortable for the client.
Incorrect choices:
A: Lying on the right side with legs straight - This position does not provide optimal access to the colon and may make the procedure more difficult.
C: Prone with the torso elevated - This position is not suitable for a colonoscopy as it does not allow for proper access to the colon.
D: Bent over with hands touching the floor - This position is not recommended for a colonoscopy as it is not conducive to the procedure and may cause discomfort for the client.
In report, the nurse learns that the patient has a transverse colostomy. What should the nurse expect when providing care for this patient?
A. Semiliquid stools with increased fluid requirements
B. Liquid stools in a pouch and increased fluid requirements
C. Formed stools with a pouch, needing irrigation, but no fluid needs
D. Semiformed stools in a pouch with the need to monitor fluid balance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Semiliquid stools with increased fluid requirements. A transverse colostomy is located in the upper part of the colon, where stool consistency is more liquid. This type of colostomy typically produces semiliquid stools due to the shorter transit time in the colon, leading to increased fluid requirements to prevent dehydration.
Summary of other choices:
B: Liquid stools in a pouch and increased fluid requirements - Incorrect because transverse colostomies produce semiliquid stools, not entirely liquid.
C: Formed stools with a pouch, needing irrigation, but no fluid needs - Incorrect as transverse colostomies do not produce formed stools, and fluid intake is necessary.
D: Semiformed stools in a pouch with the need to monitor fluid balance - Incorrect because transverse colostomies produce semiliquid stools, not semiformed, and increased fluid intake is needed.
A patient who has chronic constipation asks the nurse about the use of psyllium (Metamucil). Which information will the nurse include in the response?
A. Fiber-containing laxatives may reduce the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
B. Dietary sources of fiber should be eliminated to prevent excessive gas formation.
C. Use of this type of laxative to prevent constipation does not cause adverse effects.
D. Large amounts of fluid should be taken to prevent impaction or bowel obstruction.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer D:
- Psyllium is a bulk-forming laxative that works by absorbing water in the intestines, forming a gel-like mass that helps with bowel movements.
- Taking large amounts of fluid is essential when using psyllium to prevent the gel-like mass from hardening and causing impaction or bowel obstruction.
- Adequate fluid intake is crucial for the safe and effective use of psyllium as a laxative.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
- Choice A is incorrect because fiber-containing laxatives like psyllium do not directly impact the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
- Choice B is incorrect as dietary sources of fiber should not be eliminated entirely but rather balanced to prevent excessive gas.
- Choice C is incorrect as all medications, including laxatives, can have potential adverse effects; however, psyllium is generally well-tolerated when used appropriately.
LPN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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