LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 108
LPN exams · fundamentals
LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 108
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which environmental health activity would the nurse perform while engaged in the core public health function of assurance?
A. Educating the community about the need to boil contaminated drinking water
B. Collecting data about health issues related to contaminated drinking water
C. Developing polices to regulate the discharge of pollutants into the waterways
D. Assessing measures to reduce exposure to contaminated water
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Assessing measures to reduce exposure to contaminated water
The correct answer is D: Assessing measures to reduce exposure to contaminated water. This activity falls under the assurance function of public health, ensuring that necessary actions are taken to protect and promote health. By assessing measures to reduce exposure, the nurse is actively involved in implementing strategies to mitigate the health risks associated with contaminated water.
A: Educating the community about the need to boil contaminated drinking water falls under the function of health education or promotion rather than assurance.
B: Collecting data about health issues related to contaminated drinking water is part of the assessment function, not assurance.
C: Developing policies to regulate the discharge of pollutants into waterways is a function related to policy development, not assurance.
Question 2
The client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving teaching from the LPN/LVN. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
B. I will take aspirin instead of acetaminophen for headaches while on this medication.
C. I can stop taking the medication once my symptoms improve.
D. I will double my dose if I miss a dose to catch up.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
Clients prescribed with warfarin (Coumadin) need to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods rich in vitamin K as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, 'I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli,' is the correct statement indicating an understanding of the medication. This choice demonstrates knowledge of the importance of consistent vitamin K intake to prevent fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests a substitution that is not advised without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as stopping warfarin suddenly can lead to serious health risks. Choice D is unsafe and incorrect since doubling the dose is not the correct action if a dose is missed.
Question 3
A 53-year-old man presented to the clinic complaining of itching, flushing, arthralgia, heartburn, and diarrhea. Further exams led to the diagnosis of systemic mastocytosis. Which of the following pairs of drugs should be included in the therapeutic treatment of this patient?
A. Aspirin and ergotamine
B. Misoprostol and ergotamine
C. Loratadine and famotidine
D. Loratadine and diphenhydramine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Loratadine and famotidine
The correct answer is C: Loratadine and famotidine. Loratadine is an antihistamine that can help alleviate itching and flushing by blocking the action of histamine released during mast cell activation. Famotidine is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist that can reduce heartburn symptoms by decreasing stomach acid production. Misoprostol (choice B) is used to prevent ulcers but is not directly related to mastocytosis treatment. Aspirin and ergotamine (choice A) can worsen symptoms in mastocytosis patients due to their potential to trigger mast cell degranulation. Diphenhydramine (choice D) is an antihistamine but is not as effective as loratadine in controlling symptoms of mastocytosis. Therefore, the best therapeutic approach for this patient is to use loratadine and famotidine to manage his symptoms effectively.
Question 4
Which was a duty performed by district nurses in Liverpool, England, in 1865?
A. Use epidemiologic knowledge and methods
B. Encourage community organization
C. Report facts to and ask questions of physicians
D. Assist physicians with surgery in the newly constructed hospitals
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Report facts to and ask questions of physicians
The correct answer is C: Report facts to and ask questions of physicians. In 1865, district nurses in Liverpool mainly acted as intermediaries between patients and physicians, relaying important information and concerns to the doctors. This duty helped ensure effective communication between healthcare providers and patients.
Explanation:
A: Using epidemiologic knowledge and methods was not a common duty of district nurses in 1865. Their roles were more focused on patient care and communication.
B: While encouraging community organization may have been beneficial, it was not a primary duty of district nurses in Liverpool at that time.
D: Assisting physicians with surgery in hospitals was not a typical responsibility of district nurses in 1865; their role was more centered around patient care and support.
Question 5
What should a nurse include in the patient education for a patient prescribed albuterol inhaler?
A. Do not use this medication more than once a day.
B. Rinse your mouth after every use to avoid infection.
C. Do not use near heat or flame.
D. Take it with food to reduce GI discomfort.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Do not use near heat or flame.
The correct answer is C: "Do not use near heat or flame." Albuterol is a bronchodilator inhaler, and using it near heat or flame can lead to the risk of fire due to its flammable nature. This instruction is crucial for patient safety.
A: "Do not use this medication more than once a day" is incorrect because the frequency of albuterol inhaler use is typically based on the individual's condition and prescribed by the healthcare provider.
B: "Rinse your mouth after every use to avoid infection" is not directly related to albuterol inhaler use. Rinsing the mouth is more commonly recommended with steroid inhalers to prevent oral thrush.
D: "Take it with food to reduce GI discomfort" is not necessary for albuterol inhaler use as it is not typically associated with significant gastrointestinal side effects.
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Question 6
Indication for I.V. IgG preparation administration is:
A. Kaposi's sarcoma
B. Acute rejection of organ transplant
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Prophylaxis of certain infections
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Prophylaxis of certain infections. IV IgG preparations are commonly used for prophylaxis against infections in patients with primary immunodeficiencies or those undergoing immunosuppressive therapy. This helps provide temporary immunity to specific pathogens.
A: Kaposi's sarcoma - IV IgG preparations are not indicated for the treatment of Kaposi's sarcoma.
B: Acute rejection of organ transplant - IV IgG preparations are not used to treat organ rejection.
C: Condyloma acuminatum - IV IgG preparations are not indicated for the treatment of condyloma acuminatum.
In summary, the correct indication for IV IgG preparation administration is for prophylaxis of certain infections to boost immunity in immunocompromised patients, while the other choices are unrelated to its primary use.
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A. Weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day.
B. Restrict fluid intake to 2000 mL per day.
C. Increase your salt intake to prevent electrolyte imbalance.
D. Exercise vigorously at least three times a week.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day. This instruction is crucial because daily weights help in early detection of fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Monitoring weight is essential for managing heart failure and preventing exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because fluid restriction may be necessary in some cases of heart failure, but a general limit of 2000 mL per day is not appropriate without individual assessment. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake can worsen fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while exercise is beneficial for heart health, vigorous exercise may not be suitable for all heart failure patients and should be tailored to their specific condition.
Ticlopidine is an inhibitor of ADP-induced platelet aggregation. It’s:
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. All
D. None of the above
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Ticlopidine is a thienopyridine derivative that inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation.
2. By inhibiting the binding of ADP to its platelet receptor, it prevents platelet activation and aggregation.
3. This mechanism of action makes ticlopidine an effective antiplatelet medication for preventing clot formation.
4. Therefore, the statement that ticlopidine is an inhibitor of ADP-induced platelet aggregation is TRUE.
Summary of other choices:
- Choice B (FALSE): This is incorrect as ticlopidine is indeed an inhibitor of ADP-induced platelet aggregation.
- Choice C (All): This is incorrect as ticlopidine is not classified as affecting all types of platelet aggregation.
- Choice D (None of the above): This is incorrect as the correct answer is A, making this choice invalid.
A 34-year-old woman underwent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to investigate an acoustic neuroma. Because the woman had had a mild allergic reaction to contrast media in the past, she was given a prescription for drugs to be taken before the MRI. Which of the following drugs should be included in that prescription?
A. Fluorocortisone
B. Famotidine
C. Zafirlukast
D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Diphenhydramine. Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine that can help prevent allergic reactions to contrast media. It works by blocking the action of histamine, which is released during allergic reactions. This drug is commonly used for pre-medication to prevent allergic reactions to contrast media in patients with a history of mild reactions.
Choice A (Fluorocortisone) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for preventing allergic reactions to contrast media. Choice B (Famotidine) is a histamine-2 blocker used for stomach acid reduction and is not indicated for preventing allergic reactions. Choice C (Zafirlukast) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for asthma and allergies, but it is not typically used for pre-medication before MRI with contrast media.
Which of the following molecular actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of amphotericin B in the patient's disease?
A. Activation of fungal cytochrome P-450 enzymes
B. Pore formation in fungal cell membrane
C. Inhibition of fungal cytochrome P-450 enzymes
D. Inhibition of fungal mitosis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Pore formation in fungal cell membrane. Amphotericin B is a polyene antifungal medication that works by binding to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, leading to the formation of pores. This disrupts membrane integrity, causing leakage of intracellular components and ultimately cell death. This mechanism of action is specific to fungal cells, as mammalian cells contain cholesterol instead of ergosterol.
Choice A is incorrect because amphotericin B does not activate fungal cytochrome P-450 enzymes; instead, it disrupts the fungal cell membrane. Choice C is incorrect because amphotericin B does not inhibit fungal cytochrome P-450 enzymes. Choice D is incorrect because amphotericin B does not inhibit fungal mitosis; its primary mechanism of action is through membrane disruption.
Which of the following drugs is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Amitriptyline
C. Sertraline
D. Mirtazapine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression by increasing serotonin levels in the brain. This drug specifically targets the reuptake of serotonin, leading to higher levels available in the brain to improve mood.
Choice B: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, not an SSRI, and works by affecting the balance of certain neurotransmitters in the brain.
Choice C: Sertraline is another SSRI used for depression, but it is not the correct answer in this case.
Choice D: Mirtazapine is a different class of antidepressant called a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant (NaSSA), not an SSRI.
Therefore, the correct choice is A, Fluoxetine, as it is the only SSRI listed among the options provided.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for a patient with vitamin D deficiency due to inadequate intake?
A. Cholecalciferol
B. Calcitriol
C. Teriparatide
D. Cinacalcet
Correct answer:
Step 1: Cholecalciferol is the inactive form of vitamin D, which is converted to calcitriol in the body.
Step 2: In a patient with vitamin D deficiency due to inadequate intake, supplementing with cholecalciferol is necessary to raise vitamin D levels.
Step 3: Calcitriol (choice B) is the active form of vitamin D and is not the first-line treatment for deficiency due to inadequate intake.
Step 4: Teriparatide (choice C) is a medication used for osteoporosis, not for treating vitamin D deficiency.
Step 5: Cinacalcet (choice D) is used for treating hyperparathyroidism, not for vitamin D deficiency.
Summary: Cholecalciferol is the appropriate choice as it directly addresses the deficiency by providing the precursor to active vitamin D, while the other choices are not indicated for this specific situation.
A nurse is assessing a patient who was recently prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which side effects could the nurse expect to observe?
A. Constipation, decreased sweating, and increased sensitivity to heat
B. Increased moisture around the eyes, vomiting, and frontal headache
C. Slurred speech, hand tremors, and severe occipital headache
D. Sleeplessness, irritability, and muscle weakness
Correct answer:
Step 1: Antipsychotic medications commonly cause anticholinergic side effects such as constipation due to decreased GI motility.
Step 2: Antipsychotics can also lead to decreased sweating, causing the patient to be more sensitive to heat.
Step 3: These side effects (constipation, decreased sweating, and increased sensitivity to heat) are commonly seen with antipsychotic medications.
Summary:
Choice B: Increased moisture around the eyes, vomiting, and frontal headache are not typical side effects of antipsychotic medications.
Choice C: Slurred speech, hand tremors, and severe occipital headache are more indicative of other medication classes, such as sedatives or migraine medications.
Choice D: Sleeplessness, irritability, and muscle weakness are not commonly associated with antipsychotic medications.
Addition of which of the following drugs would be appropriate for the patient at this time?
A. Pegvisomant
B. Degarelix
C. Leuprolide
D. Cosyntropin
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A: Pegvisomant):
1. Patient likely has acromegaly due to elevated growth hormone levels.
2. Pegvisomant is a growth hormone receptor antagonist used to treat acromegaly by blocking the effects of growth hormone.
3. This drug would be appropriate to normalize the patient's growth hormone levels and improve symptoms.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- B: Degarelix is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone antagonist used in prostate cancer, not for acromegaly.
- C: Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist used in various conditions like prostate cancer and endometriosis, not for acromegaly.
- D: Cosyntropin is a synthetic form of adrenocorticotropic hormone used in diagnostic testing for adrenal function, not for acromegaly treatment.
During a psychiatric emergency, IM ziprasidone (Geodon) is administered to an assaultive patient. During the next 2 hours, it is of primary importance that the nurse assess for:
A. Tardive dyskinesia
B. Anticholinergic effects
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Pseudoparkinsonism
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Orthostatic hypotension. When administering IM ziprasidone to an assaultive patient, the nurse should assess for orthostatic hypotension as it is a common side effect that can lead to dizziness and falls. It is crucial to monitor the patient's blood pressure and pulse when changing positions to prevent complications. Tardive dyskinesia (choice A) is a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications, usually seen after prolonged use. Anticholinergic effects (choice B) are more commonly associated with medications like antihistamines and tricyclic antidepressants. Pseudoparkinsonism (choice D) refers to symptoms resembling Parkinson's disease and is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, but it is not the primary concern immediately after administering IM ziprasidone.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 108 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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