You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Todd and Erin are in the Medicaid coverage gap. What does this mean?
A. Todd and Erin are fully insured by Medicaid for all medical expenses because they have a child that qualifies for CHIP
B. Todd and Erin must forfeit their Medicaid insurance plans after their child turns 18
C. Todd and Erin make just enough to not qualify for Medicaid under its old rules but do not make enough to qualify for ACA subsidies to purchase insurance
D. Todd and Erin make just enough to get coverage for basic medical necessities but cannot afford to cover emergency medical services
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Todd and Erin make just enough to not qualify for Medicaid under its old rules but do not make enough to qualify for ACA subsidies to purchase insurance
Step-by-step rationale for Correct Answer C: Todd and Erin are in the Medicaid coverage gap means they make too much for traditional Medicaid but not enough for ACA subsidies. This is because they fall within the income range where they do not qualify for Medicaid under its old rules but also do not have sufficient income to qualify for ACA subsidies to purchase insurance. This situation leaves them without affordable health insurance options.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: This choice is incorrect because having a child that qualifies for CHIP does not guarantee Todd and Erin full Medicaid coverage for all medical expenses.
B: This choice is incorrect as there is no age restriction on Medicaid coverage. Todd and Erin's Medicaid eligibility is determined by their income level, not their child's age.
D: This choice is incorrect as it suggests that Todd and Erin can afford basic medical necessities but not emergency services, which is not related to being in the Medicaid coverage gap.
Question 2
Two nurses disagree on a patient's pain management plan. The nurse manager's role is to:
A. Choose one nurse's plan arbitrarily
B. Facilitate a discussion with both nurses
C. Let the physician decide alone
D. Reassign one nurse to another unit
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Facilitate a discussion with both nurses
The correct answer is B: Facilitate a discussion with both nurses. The nurse manager's role in this situation is to promote effective communication and collaboration between the two nurses to reach a consensus on the patient's pain management plan. By facilitating a discussion, the nurse manager can ensure that both nurses share their perspectives, identify common ground, and work towards a mutually agreed-upon solution that is in the best interest of the patient. This approach promotes teamwork, professionalism, and a patient-centered care approach.
Incorrect choices:
A: Choosing one nurse's plan arbitrarily disregards the importance of collaboration and may not result in the most optimal patient care outcome.
C: Letting the physician decide alone excludes the nurses' input and expertise in pain management, which is essential for comprehensive patient care.
D: Reassigning one nurse to another unit does not address the underlying issue of disagreement and may create further tension among the staff members.
Question 3
Which one of the following statements is true regarding access in pediatric resuscitation?
A. "Intraosseous access should only be considered after five percutaneous attempts"
B. Cut down at the ankle is a preferred initial access technique
C. Blood transfusion can be delivered through an intraosseous access
D. Internal jugular cannulation is the next preferred option when percutaneous venous access fails
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Blood transfusion can be delivered through an intraosseous access
The correct answer is C: Blood transfusion can be delivered through an intraosseous access. In pediatric resuscitation, intraosseous access is commonly used for rapid vascular access when peripheral IV access is difficult. This route allows for the delivery of fluids, medications, and even blood products such as transfusions. It is a reliable and effective alternative in emergency situations.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: "Intraosseous access should only be considered after five percutaneous attempts" - This statement is incorrect as intraosseous access is often the preferred route in pediatric resuscitation when peripheral IV access is difficult.
B: Cut down at the ankle is a preferred initial access technique - This statement is incorrect as intraosseous access is typically preferred over cut down procedures in pediatric resuscitation.
D: Internal jugular cannulation is the next preferred option when percutaneous venous access fails - This statement is incorrect as intraosseous
Question 4
The community health nurse is preparing for visits in the community. Which factor has the greatest influence on a community's health?
A. Behavior choices made by persons in the community
B. Number of clinics and hospitals in the community
C. Number of people in the community
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Behavior choices made by persons in the community
The correct answer is A: Behavior choices made by persons in the community. This factor has the greatest influence on a community's health because individual behaviors such as diet, exercise, smoking, and preventive care directly impact health outcomes. By promoting healthy behaviors and providing education on risk factors, the community health nurse can effectively improve the overall health of the community.
Choice B: Number of clinics and hospitals in the community is incorrect because access to healthcare facilities is important but does not directly influence individual behavior choices that impact health outcomes.
Choice C: Number of people in the community is incorrect because while population size can affect healthcare resource allocation, it does not directly address individual behavior choices that are crucial for community health.
Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it addresses the root cause of health outcomes and allows for targeted interventions to improve community health.
Question 5
S.Q. was just admitted because of cellulitis of her lower extremity due to a cat scratch. She was previously treated outpatient but missed multiple appointments and did not take her medication. As you complete the health history, she shares that she is sleeping on her sister's couch because she lost her job. She lives in an area of town considered a food desert and often eats whatever she can find from a local gas station or fast-food restaurant. She missed her last two follow-up visits for her leg due to inadequate transportation and could not afford to purchase the expensive medication. Which of the following statements best describes the impact of social determinants of health on S.Q.'s well-being?
A. S.Q. is not motivated to be compliant with health care provider recommendations. She should make sure she attends all appointments.
B. Social determinants of health, including lack of economic stability and an environment that lacks nutritious food options, are negatively impacting S.Q.
C. Social determinants of health are important, but she can overcome these barriers if she tries hard enough.
D. S.Q. should work harder to get a new job so she has improved economic stability and may be able to become self-sufficient.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Social determinants of health, including lack of economic stability and an environment that lacks nutritious food options, are negatively impacting S.Q.
The correct answer is B. Social determinants of health, such as lack of economic stability and limited access to nutritious food options, are negatively impacting S.Q.'s well-being. This choice is correct because it directly addresses the root causes of S.Q.'s health issues, including her living situation, financial struggles, and food insecurity. These factors significantly contribute to her inability to adhere to medical recommendations and access necessary healthcare.
Incorrect answers:
A: This choice incorrectly attributes S.Q.'s non-compliance to lack of motivation, ignoring the systemic barriers she faces.
C: This choice implies that overcoming social determinants of health is solely dependent on individual effort, disregarding the structural factors that perpetuate disparities.
D: This choice oversimplifies the situation by suggesting that S.Q. can improve her well-being solely through obtaining a new job, without acknowledging the complex interplay of social determinants impacting her health.
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Question 6
A nurse has seen several clients at a community health center. Which of the clients would be most at risk for developing an infection?
A. An older adult with several chronic illnesses
B. An infant who has just received first immunizations
C. An adolescent who had a basketball physical
D. A middle-aged adult with joint pain and stiffness
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: An older adult with several chronic illnesses. This client is most at risk for developing an infection due to a weakened immune system associated with aging and chronic illnesses, making them more vulnerable to infections. Older adults often have decreased immune function, making them more susceptible to infections. Additionally, chronic illnesses can further compromise the immune system.
Summary of other choices:
B: An infant who has just received first immunizations - While infants may experience mild side effects from immunizations, they are not at increased risk for developing infections.
C: An adolescent who had a basketball physical - Adolescents are generally healthy and active, and having a physical exam does not increase their risk of developing an infection.
D: A middle-aged adult with joint pain and stiffness - Joint pain and stiffness do not directly increase the risk of developing an infection unless there are underlying conditions compromising the immune system.
A nurse is assessing a client who has paranoid personality disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Lack of feelings of remorse
B. Requiring frequent reassurance from others
C. Suspiciousness of others
D. Inflated sense of self
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Suspiciousness of others. In paranoid personality disorder, individuals have a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others. This belief that others are out to harm or deceive them is a key characteristic. This suspicion can lead to interpersonal difficulties and strained relationships.
A: Lack of feelings of remorse is not a typical finding in paranoid personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder may have difficulties trusting others, but it does not necessarily mean they lack empathy or remorse.
B: Requiring frequent reassurance from others is more commonly seen in individuals with dependent personality disorder rather than paranoid personality disorder. Those with paranoid personality disorder tend to be distrustful and self-reliant.
D: An inflated sense of self is more characteristic of narcissistic personality disorder rather than paranoid personality disorder. Individuals with paranoid personality disorder often have feelings of inadequacy or inferiority.
What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI)?
A. Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels
B. Administer diuretics and restrict potassium
C. Provide dietary education and monitor fluid intake
D. Administer antibiotics and check for dehydration
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: 'Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels.' In managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial for the nurse to monitor urine output and electrolyte levels to assess kidney function and the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance. This monitoring helps in early detection of any worsening kidney function or electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because administering diuretics and restricting potassium may not be appropriate for all AKI patients and should be done under the direction of a healthcare provider. Choice C is also incorrect as providing dietary education and monitoring fluid intake are important but do not directly address the immediate management of AKI. Choice D is incorrect as administering antibiotics and checking for dehydration are not primary interventions for managing AKI; antibiotics are only given if there is an infection contributing to AKI, and dehydration should be managed but is not the primary role of the nurse in AKI management.
During a manic episode, a patient is hyperactive, restless, and disorganized. The patient goes to the dining room and begins to throw food and dishes. Verbal intervention is ineffective. The patient's behavior poses a substantial risk of harm to others. Staff escorts the patient to the patient's room to dine alone. What is the rationale for this action?
A. Prevent other patients from observing the behavior.
B. Reduce environmental stimuli that negatively affect the patient.
C. Protect the patient's biological integrity until medication takes effect.
D. Reinforce limit setting
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Reduce environmental stimuli that negatively affect the patient. This action helps reduce stimulation that may be exacerbating the manic episode, promoting a calmer environment for the patient. Removing the patient from the dining room minimizes triggers for further disruptive behavior. This approach prioritizes the patient's well-being by managing the environmental factors contributing to the escalation of symptoms.
A: Preventing other patients from observing the behavior does not directly address the patient's needs during the manic episode and does not actively help in managing the situation.
C: Protecting the patient's biological integrity until medication takes effect may be important, but in this scenario, the immediate focus is on addressing the environmental factors contributing to the behavior.
D: Reinforcing limit setting is important in managing behavior, but in this specific situation, reducing environmental stimuli is a more immediate and effective intervention.
You are called to assist a 20-year-old male for a severe headache. On-scene, you learn the patient was involved in an accident that caused a potential closed head injury. However, at the time of the accident, the patient refused EMS care, stating he felt fine. Today, he is experiencing headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. Which of the following injuries is most likely to cause this type presentation?
A. Coup-contra-coup injury
B. Diffuse axonal injury
C. Subdural hematoma
D. Epidural hematoma
Correct answer:
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Subdural hematoma. Subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid mater of the brain, often caused by head trauma. Symptoms include headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, which align with the patient's presentation. Subdural hematomas can develop gradually after a head injury, leading to delayed symptoms.
Other choices:
A: Coup-contra-coup injury - This injury involves the brain hitting the skull on both sides due to acceleration-deceleration forces, but it typically presents with focal neurological deficits rather than the diffuse symptoms described.
B: Diffuse axonal injury - This injury involves widespread damage to nerve fibers in the brain, leading to coma or altered consciousness rather than confusion and visual disturbances.
D: Epidural hematoma - This injury is a collection of blood between the skull and dura mater, typically causing rapid deterioration in mental status and focal neurological deficits, not confusion
The nurse is caring for a school-aged child who has injured the right leg after a bicycle accident. Which signs and symptoms will the nurse assess for to determine if the child is experiencing a localized inflammatory response?
A. Malaise, anorexia, enlarged lymph nodes, and increased white blood cells
B. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea and vomiting
C. Dizziness and disorientation to time, date, and place
D. Edema, redness, tenderness, and loss of function
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. In this scenario, the child has injured the right leg, indicating a localized injury. Signs of a localized inflammatory response include edema (swelling), redness, tenderness, and loss of function in the affected area. Edema and redness occur due to increased blood flow and fluid accumulation at the site of injury. Tenderness is a result of irritation of nerve endings, and loss of function can occur due to pain and swelling limiting movement.
Choice A is incorrect because malaise, anorexia, enlarged lymph nodes, and increased white blood cells are more indicative of a systemic inflammatory response rather than a localized one.
Choice B is incorrect as chest pain, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not typical signs of a localized inflammatory response.
Choice C is incorrect as dizziness and disorientation are not specific signs of inflammation in a localized area.
In summary, the signs and symptoms in choice D align with a localized inflammatory response
The nurse at a long-term care facility is assessing each of the residents. Which resident most likely faces the greatest risk for aspiration?
A. A resident who suffered a severe stroke several weeks ago
B. A resident with mid-stage Alzheimers disease
C. A 92-year-old resident who needs extensive help with ADLs
D. A resident with severe and deforming rheumatoid arthritis
Correct answer:
Aspiration risk is highest in patients with impaired swallowing or protective airway reflexes, such as the gag, laryngeal, and cough reflexes, which are frequently disrupted by a severe stroke. Stroke-related dysphagia stems from neurological damage to cranial nerves (e.g., IX, X), leading to uncoordinated swallowing and silent aspiration, especially within weeks of the event when recovery is incomplete. Mid-stage Alzheimer's typically affects cognition more than motor swallowing function, with dysphagia emerging later. A 92-year-old needing ADL help may have frailty but not necessarily swallowing impairment unless tied to a specific condition. Severe rheumatoid arthritis causes joint deformity, not typically dysphagia, unless secondary issues (e.g., cervical spine involvement) affect swallowing, which isn't indicated. The stroke patient's recent neurological insult makes them most vulnerable, requiring the nurse to prioritize swallowing assessments and interventions like modified diets or speech therapy.
A. Assessing, diagnosing, implementing, evaluating, and planning
B. Diagnosing, assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating
C. Assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating
D. Planning, evaluating, diagnosing, assessing, and implementing
Correct answer:
The nursing process is a systematic, five-step framework for delivering patient-centered care: assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating. It begins with assessment, where the nurse collects comprehensive data about the patient's health status. Next, diagnosing involves analyzing this data to identify health problems or risks. Planning follows, where specific goals and interventions are developed. Implementation puts the plan into action, and evaluation assesses its effectiveness, potentially restarting the cycle if needed. This order ensures a logical flow from data collection to outcome review, optimizing patient care. The other options disrupt this sequence: starting with diagnosing or planning before assessing lacks foundational data, while placing evaluating before key steps like planning or implementing skips critical actions. Only assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating follows the established, evidence-based progression used universally in nursing practice.
Side effects shared by NSAIDs include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Addiction
B. Gastrointestinal ulceration
C. Nephropathy
D. Hepatotoxicity
Correct answer:
NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen, aspirin, and naproxen, share a side effect profile linked to their inhibition of COX enzymes, which reduces protective prostaglandins. Gastrointestinal ulceration occurs due to decreased mucus production in the stomach, increasing risks of bleeding or ulcers, a well-known issue with chronic use. Nephropathy results from reduced renal prostaglandin synthesis, impairing kidney perfusion and potentially leading to acute or chronic renal damage. Hepatotoxicity, though less frequent, can arise from metabolic overload in the liver with prolonged high doses. Addiction, however, is not associated with NSAIDs. It's a characteristic of opioids, which stimulate the brain's reward pathways via mu receptors, fostering dependence. NSAIDs lack psychoactive properties and don't induce euphoria or craving, making Addiction the exception. This question tests the ability to differentiate NSAID toxicities from those of other drug classes, vital for safe prescribing and patient counseling on risks.
Side effects shared by NSAIDs include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Addiction
B. Gastrointestinal ulceration
C. Nephropathy
D. Hepatotoxicity
Correct answer:
NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen, aspirin, and naproxen, share a side effect profile linked to their inhibition of COX enzymes, which reduces protective prostaglandins. Gastrointestinal ulceration occurs due to decreased mucus production in the stomach, increasing risks of bleeding or ulcers, a well-known issue with chronic use. Nephropathy results from reduced renal prostaglandin synthesis, impairing kidney perfusion and potentially leading to acute or chronic renal damage. Hepatotoxicity, though less frequent, can arise from metabolic overload in the liver with prolonged high doses. Addiction, however, is not associated with NSAIDs. It's a characteristic of opioids, which stimulate the brain's reward pathways via mu receptors, fostering dependence. NSAIDs lack psychoactive properties and don't induce euphoria or craving, making Addiction the exception. This question tests the ability to differentiate NSAID toxicities from those of other drug classes, vital for safe prescribing and patient counseling on risks.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 13 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
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