LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 18
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LPN exams cardiovascular practice questionsset 18
You read heart failure, perfusion, and blood-pressure stems and decide what to do before the patient declines. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five cardiovascular questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A laboratory finding of aplastic anaemia
A. Pancytopaenia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Bone marrow hypercellularity
D. Reticulocytosis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Pancytopaenia
Rationale:
1. Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure, leading to decreased production of all blood cell types.
2. Pancytopenia refers to low levels of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, consistent with aplastic anemia.
3. Erythrocytosis is an increase in red blood cell count, contradictory to the reduced production in aplastic anemia.
4. Bone marrow hypercellularity indicates increased cellularity, opposite to the hypocellularity seen in aplastic anemia.
5. Reticulocytosis is an elevated number of immature red blood cells, which is not typically seen in the context of bone marrow failure in aplastic anemia.
Summary:
A is correct as it aligns with the characteristic pancytopenia in aplastic anemia. B, C, and D are incorrect due to their inconsistency with the pathophysiology of the condition.
Question 2
A 16-year-old female patient with severe factor XI deficiency presents with acute appendicitis and requires urgent surgery. You are called by the surgeon, who wants to know what, if any, blood products or treatments are required to reduce the risk of perioperative bleeding. The patient weighs 62 kg. What should you tell him to administer?
A. Cryoprecipitate (five units), which will likely raise her factor XI level to 20%
B. Factor XI concentrate (20 units/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%
C. Fresh frozen plasma (20 mL/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%
D. Prothrombin complex concentrate (40 units/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Fresh frozen plasma (20 mL/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%
The correct answer is C: Fresh frozen plasma (20 mL/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%. Fresh frozen plasma contains various clotting factors, including factor XI. In a patient with severe factor XI deficiency, administering fresh frozen plasma can increase factor XI levels and help reduce the risk of perioperative bleeding. The dose of 20 mL/kg is appropriate for this patient's weight of 62 kg. Cryoprecipitate (choice A) may contain factor XI but is not the optimal choice for raising factor XI levels specifically. Factor XI concentrate (choice B) would be ideal but is not commonly available, making fresh frozen plasma a more practical option. Prothrombin complex concentrate (choice D) primarily contains factors II, VII, IX, and X, but not factor XI, so it would not effectively raise factor XI levels in this patient.
Question 3
A 4-year-old has acute glomerulonephritis and is admitted to the hospital. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for this child should be
A. Risk for Urinary Tract Injury Related to Loss of Blood in Urine.
B. Excess Fluid Volume Related to Decreased Plasma Filtration.
C. Risk for Infection Related to Hypertension.
D. Disturbed Personal Identity Related to a Chronic Disease.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Excess Fluid Volume Related to Decreased Plasma Filtration.
The correct answer is B: Excess Fluid Volume Related to Decreased Plasma Filtration. In acute glomerulonephritis, the glomeruli are inflamed, leading to decreased filtration of plasma and retention of fluid. This results in excess fluid volume. This nursing diagnosis addresses the specific physiological issue of fluid retention in this condition.
A: Risk for Urinary Tract Injury is not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis but rather to other factors such as urinary obstruction or trauma.
C: Risk for Infection is not the priority nursing diagnosis in acute glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is a common complication, but infection risk is not directly related to the condition.
D: Disturbed Personal Identity is not a relevant nursing diagnosis in this case as it does not address the physiological issue of fluid volume excess.
Question 4
You receive a phone call from a community pediatrician who is caring for a 2-year-old toddler with a cancer predisposition syndrome. The pediatrician describes a child at the 95th percentile for height and weight with a history of corrective oral surgery to reduce a large tongue and a history of an omphalocele in infancy. The pediatrician is currently performing ultrasound of the abdomen and laboratory evaluation for this patient every 3 months. Which tumor is this patient most at risk of developing?
A. Pleuropulmonary blastoma
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Cystic nephroma
D. Nephroblastoma
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Nephroblastoma
Step-by-step rationale for why the correct answer is D, Nephroblastoma:
1. The child has a cancer predisposition syndrome, likely Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (BWS).
2. BWS is associated with an increased risk of developing Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma).
3. The large tongue, omphalocele, and overgrowth placing the child at the 95th percentile for height and weight are all characteristic features of BWS.
4. Therefore, the patient is most at risk of developing nephroblastoma.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Pleuropulmonary blastoma - Not typically associated with BWS or the described clinical features.
B: Hepatocellular carcinoma - Not commonly linked to BWS or the clinical presentation provided.
C: Cystic nephroma - Not a typical tumor associated with BWS or the clinical findings described in the patient.
Question 5
A female infant is diagnosed with hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) not associated with an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection. In taking the family history, you learn that another female infant died of HLH 2 years ago. Also, a newborn female child died of an unknown disease 4 years prior and was said have been bleeding profusely, jaundiced, and had a distended abdomen. When counseling the family about the genetics of HLH, how will you explain it?
A. It is an X-linked syndrome
B. It is an autosomal recessive syndrome
C. It is a dominant inheritance syndrome
D. It is an autosomal recessive syndrome with incomplete penetrance
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — It is an autosomal recessive syndrome
The correct answer is B: It is an autosomal recessive syndrome. HLH is typically inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning both parents must pass on a copy of the mutated gene for the child to develop the condition. In this case, the family history suggests a pattern of multiple affected female infants, which is more indicative of an autosomal recessive inheritance. Choice A (X-linked syndrome) is incorrect because the pattern of inheritance in this family does not align with X-linked inheritance. Choice C (dominant inheritance syndrome) is incorrect because a dominant inheritance pattern would not typically result in multiple affected offspring. Choice D (autosomal recessive syndrome with incomplete penetrance) is incorrect because incomplete penetrance would not explain the consistent occurrence of HLH in this family.
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Question 6
A 12-year-old patient with localized osteosarcoma is being treated with cisplatin, doxorubicin, and high-dose methotrexate. The pain at his primary site rapidly resolves after initiation of chemotherapy. After tumor resection, pathology reveals the tumor was greater than 95% necrotic. You want to continue cisplatin, doxorubicin, and high-dose methotrexate. Which of the following is the best answer regarding the evaluations that should be performed to monitor for toxicity in patients receiving cisplatin, doxorubicin, and high-dose methotrexate?
A. Complete blood count, creatinine, liver function tests
B. Complete blood count, serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, BUN, chloride), and EKG to monitor for prolonged QTc
C. Complete blood count, creatinine, serum magnesium, audiogram, and echocardiogram
D. Complete blood count, creatinine, serum magnesium, chest x-ray
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Complete blood count, creatinine, serum magnesium, audiogram, and echocardiogram. This choice includes essential monitoring tests for potential toxicities associated with cisplatin, doxorubicin, and high-dose methotrexate. Here's the rationale:
1. Complete blood count: To monitor for hematologic toxicities such as anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia.
2. Creatinine: To assess renal function, as cisplatin can cause nephrotoxicity.
3. Serum magnesium: Methotrexate can cause hypomagnesemia, necessitating monitoring.
4. Audiogram: Doxorubicin can lead to hearing loss, thus an audiogram is needed for early detection.
5. Echocardiogram: Doxorubicin can cause cardiotoxicity, so an echocardiogram helps in monitoring cardiac function.
Each of the other choices lacks one or more essential monitoring tests
A patient with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in an acutely disturbed, violent state. He is given several doses of haloperidol (Haldol) and becomes calm and The patient has _________ , and the nurse should _________.
A. a dystonic reaction…administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin)
B. tardive dyskinesia…seek a change in the drug or its dosage
C. waxy flexibility…continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs
D. akathisia…administer PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: a dystonic reaction…administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin).
Rationale:
1. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that can cause extrapyramidal symptoms like dystonic reactions.
2. Dystonic reactions are characterized by muscle spasms and abnormal postures.
3. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication that helps alleviate dystonic reactions by blocking acetylcholine.
4. Administering benztropine intramuscularly (IM) is appropriate for quick relief in acute situations.
Summary:
B: Tardive dyskinesia is a late-developing side effect of antipsychotics, not an acute reaction like dystonic reactions.
C: Waxy flexibility is a catatonic symptom, not related to extrapyramidal side effects.
D: Akathisia is restlessness and an inability to sit still, not a dystonic reaction that would require ben
Which of the following antienzymes is a proteolysis inhibitor?
A. Contrical
B. Sulbactam
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. Disulfiram
Correct answer:
Step 1: Identify the antienzyme that inhibits proteolysis. Proteolysis is the breakdown of proteins into smaller peptides or amino acids by proteolytic enzymes.
Step 2: Contrical is a proteolysis inhibitor that specifically inhibits trypsin, a digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins in the small intestine.
Step 3: Sulbactam is a beta-lactamase inhibitor used in combination with antibiotics to prevent bacterial resistance.
Step 4: Aminocaproic acid is a fibrinolysis inhibitor used to prevent excessive blood clot breakdown.
Step 5: Disulfiram is an alcohol deterrent that inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, not proteolysis.
Summary: Contrical (Choice A) is the correct answer as it directly inhibits a proteolytic enzyme involved in protein breakdown. Sulbactam, aminocaproic acid, and disulfiram do not target proteolysis enzymes.
A 6-year-old boy is noted to have worsening visual acuity on serial eye exams. Recent MRI of his brain and orbits reveals an optic chiasm mass, most consistent with an optic pathway glioma. Upon further examination, the physician notes axillary freckling and numerous “spots†on the patient's skin. This patient most likely has a which of the following genetic disorders?
A study is designed to investigate the rates of central line–associated blood stream infections among pediatric hematology/oncology patients. Three common central line types (totally implanted catheter [port], peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC], and tunneled externalized catheter [TEC]) were included in the study. What data structure is central line type?
A. Continuous
B. Dichotomous
C. Nominal
D. Ordinal
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Nominal. Central line type is a nominal data structure because it represents categories without any inherent order or ranking. In this study, the central line types (port, PICC, TEC) are distinct categories with no numerical value or order. It's important to distinguish between the different types of central lines, but they cannot be ordered in a meaningful sequence, making them nominal.
Incorrect answers:
A: Continuous - Central line type does not have a continuous range of values, it is categorical.
B: Dichotomous - Dichotomous data structure has only two categories, while central line type has more than two distinct categories.
D: Ordinal - Ordinal data structure involves categories with a clear order or ranking, which is not applicable to central line types as they do not have a natural order.
A 55-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled essential hypertension had recently added atenolol to her therapeutic regimen. Which of the following was most likely a primary mechanism that mediated the antihypertensive effect of atenolol in this patient?
A. Dilation of large veins
B. Inhibition of epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
C. Blockade of beta receptors of the vascular wall
D. Decreased sympathetic outflow from vasomotor area
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Inhibition of epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that primarily works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. This results in reduced heart rate, cardiac output, and renin release, leading to decreased blood pressure.
A: Dilation of large veins is not the primary mechanism of action of atenolol. It primarily affects the heart and vasculature by blocking beta-receptors.
C: While atenolol does block beta receptors in the vascular wall, the primary mechanism of antihypertensive effect is through inhibition of epinephrine release.
D: Atenolol does not directly affect sympathetic outflow from the vasomotor area. The main mechanism is through blocking beta-receptors and reducing catecholamine release.
What happened in the 10 years after the United Nations Office of Drug Control (UNODC) proclaimed as their slogan in 1998, “A drug-free world: We can do it!�
A. The global production and sale of heroin was cut in half by tough anti-drug trafficking measures.
B. The production and sale of heroin doubled worldwide.
C. A conglomerate of 42 dissenting nations, led by Bolivia, started campaigning for the repeal of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs.
D. 4000 illegal opium farms were registered as legal opium farms (producing opium for the legal pharmaceutical industry).
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the statement "A drug-free world: We can do it!" is an unrealistic and overly ambitious goal. In reality, the production and sale of heroin worldwide did not decrease significantly; instead, it doubled in the 10 years following the slogan. This outcome highlights the complexity and challenges of tackling drug issues globally.
A is incorrect because tough anti-drug trafficking measures alone cannot cut global heroin production and sale in half significantly.
C is incorrect because a conglomerate of dissenting nations campaigning for the repeal of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs is not directly related to the UNODC slogan outcome.
D is incorrect because the conversion of illegal opium farms to legal ones does not address the overall increase in global heroin production and sale.
A family member asks a mental health nurse, “I am reading a lot of information about gene therapy in the news lately. Will gene therapy be able to help my spouse, who has schizophrenia?†Which response by the nurse is best?
A. “Gene therapy for schizophrenia is common in Europe but has not yet become popular in the United States.â€
B. “Gene therapy for schizophrenia is available, but the high cost prohibits most people from taking advantage of it.â€
C. “Gene therapy is still an experimental field and is not likely to be used to treat mental health disorders in the near future.â€
D. “Gene therapy has already shown promise in treating schizophrenia, but not enough large-scale studies have been carried out to date.â€
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because gene therapy is indeed still an experimental field, especially in the context of treating mental health disorders like schizophrenia. This is due to the complex nature of mental health conditions and the need for more research to fully understand how gene therapy can effectively target and treat such disorders.
Choice A is incorrect because the popularity of gene therapy for schizophrenia is not dependent on geographical location. Choice B is incorrect as the high cost is not the primary reason why gene therapy is not widely used for schizophrenia. Choice D is incorrect as it acknowledges the promise of gene therapy for schizophrenia but highlights the lack of sufficient large-scale studies, which further supports the notion that gene therapy is not yet a standard treatment for the condition.
Which of the following is the best action by the nurse?
A. Administer the metoprolol (Lopressor) and the hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril), hold the captopril (Copoten), and notify the physician.
B. Administer the captopril (Capoten) and the hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril), hold the metoprolol (Lepressor), and notify the physican.
C. Administer all the medications and notify the physician.
D. Withhold all the medications and notify the physician.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer A:
1. Administering metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide is appropriate as they are commonly prescribed antihypertensive medications.
2. Holding captopril is correct because it is contraindicated with hydrochlorothiazide due to increased risk of hyperkalemia.
3. Notifying the physician is necessary for further guidance and potential alternative treatment options.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Administering captopril with hydrochlorothiazide is not recommended due to potential adverse effects. Holding metoprolol without a valid reason is not indicated.
C: Administering all medications without considering drug interactions is unsafe and may lead to harmful effects.
D: Withholding all medications without proper justification can result in uncontrolled hypertension and potential complications.
When developing a teaching plan for a 61-yr-old patient with multiple risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD), the nurse should focus primarily on the
A. family history of coronary artery disease.
B. elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level.
C. increased risk associated with the patient’s gender.
D. increased risk of cardiovascular disease as people age.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level. This is the most critical factor to focus on when developing a teaching plan for a patient with multiple risk factors for CAD. Elevated LDL is a major contributor to the development of atherosclerosis, a key process in CAD. Lowering LDL through lifestyle modifications or medication can significantly reduce the risk of CAD.
A: Family history is important but cannot be modified.
C: Gender is a non-modifiable risk factor and may play a role but is not as directly impactful as elevated LDL.
D: While age is a risk factor for CAD, it is not as modifiable as lowering LDL levels.
In summary, focusing on controlling the elevated LDL level through lifestyle changes and medication will have the most significant impact on reducing the patient's risk for CAD.
LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 18 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
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