LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 15
LPN exams · cardiovascular
LPN exams cardiovascular practice questionsset 15
You read heart failure, perfusion, and blood-pressure stems and decide what to do before the patient declines. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five cardiovascular questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The client is taking gemfibrozil. What contraindication to taking the drug should the nurse tell the client about?
A. History of MI
B. History of elevated triglyceride levels.
C. Active gallbladder disease
D. Taking aspirin with gemfibrozil.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Active gallbladder disease
The correct answer is C: Active gallbladder disease. Gemfibrozil can exacerbate gallbladder disease by increasing the risk of gallstones. This can lead to complications such as cholecystitis. Therefore, clients with active gallbladder disease should be cautious when taking gemfibrozil.
A: History of MI - This is not a contraindication for gemfibrozil. In fact, gemfibrozil can be beneficial for clients with a history of MI by helping to lower triglyceride levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events.
B: History of elevated triglyceride levels - This is not a contraindication for gemfibrozil. In fact, gemfibrozil is indicated for the treatment of elevated triglyceride levels.
D: Taking aspirin with gemfibrozil - While there can be interactions between aspirin and gemfibrozil, it is not a contraindication. Clients may need to be monitored for
Question 2
Indicate the vasoconstrictor of endogenous origin:
A. Ephedrine
B. Phenylephrine
C. Xylomethazoline
D. Angiotensinamide
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Angiotensinamide
The correct answer is D: Angiotensinamide. This is because angiotensinamide is a hormone produced endogenously by the body that acts as a potent vasoconstrictor. It plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by constricting blood vessels.
Rationale:
1. Angiotensinamide is a naturally occurring hormone in the body.
2. It acts specifically as a vasoconstrictor, narrowing blood vessels.
3. This physiological function of angiotensinamide helps regulate blood pressure.
4. In contrast, choices A, B, and C are exogenous substances with pharmacological vasoconstrictive effects, not endogenously produced hormones like angiotensinamide.
Summary:
A, B, and C are incorrect because they are synthetic substances with vasoconstrictive properties, whereas angiotensinamide is the correct answer as it is an endogenous vasoconstrictor hormone in the body.
Question 3
A patient is hospitalized for severe depression. Of the medications listed below, the nurse can expect to provide the patient with teaching about:
A. chlordiazepoxide (Librium). – antianxiety
B. clozapine (Clozaril). – atypical antipsych
C. sertraline (Zoloft). –SSRI
D. tacrine (Cognex). – Alzheimers
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — sertraline (Zoloft). –SSRI
The correct answer is C: sertraline (Zoloft) – an SSRI. Sertraline is commonly prescribed for depression due to its effectiveness in managing symptoms by balancing serotonin levels in the brain. Teaching for this medication would include instructions on how to take it, potential side effects, and the importance of compliance.
A: chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is an antianxiety medication and not typically used as a first-line treatment for depression.
B: clozapine (Clozaril) is an atypical antipsychotic mainly used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not for depression.
D: tacrine (Cognex) is used for Alzheimer's disease and is not indicated for depression.
In summary, the other choices are incorrect because they are not commonly used to treat depression and do not have the same mechanism of action as sertraline in managing depressive symptoms.
Question 4
What is a severe allergic reaction that can cause difficulty breathing and shock?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Asthma attack
C. Bronchospasm
D. Hypersensitivity
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Anaphylaxis
The correct answer is A: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause difficulty breathing and shock due to the body's extreme immune response to an allergen. It involves a systemic release of histamine and other chemicals leading to symptoms like swelling, hives, and a drop in blood pressure. Asthma attack (B) is a respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and narrowing, but it is not necessarily related to an allergic reaction. Bronchospasm (C) refers to the sudden constriction of the muscles lining the airways, which can occur in asthma or other respiratory conditions, but it is not specific to an allergic reaction. Hypersensitivity (D) is a general term for exaggerated immune responses, including allergies, but it does not specifically describe the severe and potentially life-threatening nature of anaphylaxis.
Question 5
The client is on low molecular weight heparin. A priority nursing intervention is what?
A. Monitor the heparin level
B. Monitor the aPTT
C. Monitor for hemorrhage
D. Monitor the blood sugar
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Monitor for hemorrhage
The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is the priority intervention for a client on low molecular weight heparin due to its anticoagulant effect, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for hemorrhage involves assessing for signs such as bruising, petechiae, hematomas, and abnormal bleeding from any site. This intervention is crucial to detect and address any bleeding complications promptly.
Incorrect choices:
A: Monitoring the heparin level is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring.
B: Monitoring the aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it has a more predictable anticoagulant effect than unfractionated heparin.
D: Monitoring the blood sugar is not directly related to the use of low molecular weight heparin and is not a priority intervention in this case.
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Question 6
For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
A. Concentration of a substance in plasma
B. Concentration of substance in urine
C. Therapeutical width of drug action
D. A daily dose of drug
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because the volume of distribution (Vd) is a pharmacokinetic parameter that describes the extent of drug distribution in the body. It is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug in the body by the concentration of the drug in the plasma. Therefore, the concentration of a substance in plasma is essential for determining Vd.
Choice B (Concentration of substance in urine) is incorrect because Vd is not calculated based on urine concentration but rather on plasma concentration.
Choice C (Therapeutical width of drug action) is unrelated to Vd calculation as it refers to the range of drug concentrations in the body that produce the desired therapeutic effect.
Choice D (A daily dose of drug) is also incorrect as Vd is not directly calculated from the daily dose but rather from the concentration of the drug in the plasma.
Which nursing intervention is likely to be most effective when assisting the patient with coronary artery disease to make appropriate dietary changes?
A. Inform the patient about a diet containing no saturated fat and minimal salt.
B. Help the patient modify favorite high-fat recipes by using monounsaturated oils.
C. Emphasize the increased risk for heart problems unless the patient makes the dietary changes.
D. Give the patient a list of low-sodium, low-cholesterol foods that should be included in the diet.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Help the patient modify favorite high-fat recipes by using monounsaturated oils. This answer is correct because it focuses on practical and sustainable dietary changes by modifying existing favorite recipes to make them healthier. By using monounsaturated oils instead of saturated fats, the patient can still enjoy their favorite foods while making positive changes to their diet.
Option A is too restrictive in eliminating all saturated fats and may not be sustainable for the patient in the long term. Option C focuses on fear-based motivation, which is not always effective in promoting behavior change. Option D gives a list of foods without addressing how the patient can make practical changes in their meal preparation. Overall, option B is the most effective as it encourages gradual and realistic changes in the patient's diet.
What procedure involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove excess fluid and help the patient breathe more easily?
A. Thoracentesis
B. Bronchoscopy
C. Spirometry
D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Thoracentesis. This procedure involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to drain excess fluid, which can accumulate due to conditions like pleural effusion or pneumonia, helping the patient breathe easier. It's performed under ultrasound guidance, ensuring precise fluid removal without damaging nearby structures. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure, providing fluid for analysis and relieving symptoms of dyspnea.
Summary:
B: Bronchoscopy is a procedure to visualize the airways using a thin, flexible tube and is not used for draining pleural fluid.
C: Spirometry is a lung function test measuring airflow and is not a procedure for removing pleural fluid.
D: Arterial blood gas (ABG) is a blood test to assess oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and is not related to removing pleural fluid.
During a fishing trip, a patient pierced his finger with a large fishhook. He is now in the emergency department to have it removed. The nurse anticipates that which type of anesthesia will be used for this procedure?
A. No anesthesia
B. Topical benzocaine spray on the area
C. Topical prilocaine (EMLA) cream around the site
D. Infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine is the most appropriate anesthesia for removing a fishhook. Lidocaine will provide local anesthesia, numbing the area around the wound to reduce pain during the procedure. It is a common practice in emergency medicine to use local anesthesia for wound care and minor procedures.
Explanation for other choices:
A: No anesthesia - not using any anesthesia can lead to significant pain and discomfort for the patient.
B: Topical benzocaine spray on the area - benzocaine spray may not provide sufficient depth of anesthesia for a procedure involving a deep puncture wound like a fishhook.
C: Topical prilocaine (EMLA) cream around the site - while EMLA cream can provide some local anesthesia, it may not be as effective as lidocaine infiltration for a wound involving a fishhook.
Which condition involves the body's immune system attacking the lungs and kidneys, causing severe respiratory and renal damage?
A. Goodpasture syndrome
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Wegener's granulomatosis
D. Interstitial lung disease
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for A being correct:
1. Goodpasture syndrome is an autoimmune disease where the body produces antibodies against collagen in the lungs and kidneys.
2. Antibodies attack the basement membrane of the lungs and kidneys, leading to severe respiratory and renal damage.
3. Symptoms include coughing up blood, difficulty breathing, and kidney failure.
4. Treatment involves immunosuppressive therapy and plasma exchange to remove harmful antibodies.
Summary:
- B: Sarcoidosis involves granulomas in multiple organs but typically not lung-kidney damage.
- C: Wegener's granulomatosis affects the respiratory tract and kidneys but involves inflammation, not antibodies against collagen.
- D: Interstitial lung disease is a broad term for various lung conditions but doesn't specifically involve the immune system attacking lungs and kidneys.
The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving a blood product and is concerned that the blood is going to deteriorate before it is complete infused. What is the maximum time that blood can hang during infusion before it begins to deteriorate?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: 4 hours. Blood products typically have a maximum hang time of 4 hours to reduce the risk of bacterial contamination and ensure the integrity of the product. Beyond this time, there is an increased risk of bacterial growth, which can lead to serious infections in the patient. It is crucial to adhere to the recommended hang time to maintain the safety and efficacy of the blood product.
Summary of other choices:
A: 1 hour - Too short of a time frame for a blood product to be infused, as it would not allow for the complete administration.
B: 2 hours - While closer to the correct answer, it still falls short of the recommended 4-hour maximum hang time for blood products.
C: 3 hours - Again, this is not the optimal choice as it exceeds the safe hang time for blood products, increasing the risk of contamination and deterioration.
A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?
A. vitamin E
B. vitamin K
C. protamine sulfate
D. potassium chloride
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose as it helps in replenishing the depleted clotting factors inhibited by warfarin. Warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, leading to increased bleeding risk. Vitamin K administration helps reverse the anticoagulant effects by promoting the production of these clotting factors.
A: Vitamin E is not the antidote for warfarin overdose. Vitamin E does not have any direct role in reversing the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
C: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, not warfarin. It works by neutralizing heparin's anticoagulant effects.
D: Potassium chloride is not the antidote for warfarin overdose. It is used to correct potassium imbalances in the body and has no role in reversing anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
The most important practice in preventing the spread of disease is:
A. Wearing masks during patient contact
B. Proper handwashing
C. Wearing disposable lab coats
D. Identifying specimens from known or suspected HIV and HBV patients with a red label
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Proper handwashing. This is the most important practice in preventing the spread of disease because it effectively removes germs and bacteria from hands, reducing the risk of transmission. Handwashing is crucial in healthcare settings to prevent infections.
A: Wearing masks during patient contact is important, but handwashing is more effective in preventing disease spread as it directly addresses the transmission of germs through hands.
C: Wearing disposable lab coats is important for infection control but not as crucial as proper handwashing, which directly removes germs from hands.
D: Identifying specimens with red labels is important for handling potentially infectious materials, but handwashing is still the most essential practice in preventing disease spread as it addresses the primary mode of transmission through hands.
Why are older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases susceptible to thrombophlebitis?
A. Older adults are less mobile.
B. Older adults have more activities.
C. Older adults take more IV drugs and chemicals.
D. Older adults have more diet restrictions.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases are more susceptible to thrombophlebitis due to reduced mobility, which can lead to blood pooling and clot formation in the veins. Reduced mobility can result from various reasons such as age-related muscle weakness, joint stiffness, and overall frailty. This stagnant blood flow increases the risk of clot formation, especially in the lower extremities.
Choice B is incorrect because it contradicts the concept of reduced mobility in older adults. Choice C is incorrect as the use of IV drugs and chemicals is not directly linked to thrombophlebitis in this context. Choice D is incorrect as diet restrictions, although important for cardiovascular health, do not directly contribute to the susceptibility of thrombophlebitis in older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases.
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client after CABG surgery. The client is taking several new medications, including digoxin (Lanoxin), metoprolol (Lopressor), and furosemide (Lasix). The client complains of nausea and anorexia. The nurse is preparing to report this finding to the physician before discharging the client. Which laboratory result will the nurse check before calling the physician?
A. Potassium level
B. Sodium level
C. PT / INR
D. Digoxin level
Correct answer:
Step 1: The client is taking digoxin, which can cause toxicity if the potassium level is low.
Step 2: Low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.
Step 3: Nausea and anorexia are symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should check the potassium level to assess the risk of digoxin toxicity.
Step 5: Checking the sodium level (choice B) is not directly related to digoxin toxicity.
Step 6: PT/INR (choice C) is used to monitor anticoagulant therapy, not related to digoxin toxicity.
Step 7: Checking the digoxin level (choice D) would confirm toxicity, but checking potassium level helps prevent toxicity.
Summary: The nurse should check the potassium level as it directly correlates with the risk of digoxin toxicity, whereas the other choices are not directly related to the client's symptoms and medication regimen.
LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 15 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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