LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 5
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LPN exams cardiovascular practice questionsset 5
You read heart failure, perfusion, and blood-pressure stems and decide what to do before the patient declines. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five cardiovascular questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Tranquilizers intoxication (5-10 tablets) features include:
A. Euphoria burst of energy increase in motor activity wave warmth all over the body
B. Visual hallucinations a distorted feelling of time and space
C. Physical bliss body lightness a wish to fly motionlessness
D. Synaesthesia (the sounds can be tensed the colors can be heard)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Euphoria burst of energy increase in motor activity wave warmth all over the body
The correct answer is A because tranquilizers typically produce euphoria, burst of energy, increase in motor activity, and a warm sensation throughout the body. This is due to the sedative effects of tranquilizers, which can initially induce feelings of relaxation and well-being.
Choice B is incorrect because visual hallucinations and distorted perception of time and space are more commonly associated with hallucinogens rather than tranquilizers.
Choice C is incorrect because physical bliss, body lightness, a wish to fly, and motionlessness are not typical effects of tranquilizer intoxication.
Choice D is incorrect because synaesthesia, where senses mix and one sensory experience triggers another, is not a common effect of tranquilizers intoxication.
In summary, choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the typical features of tranquilizers intoxication, while the other choices do not accurately describe the effects of tranquilizers.
Question 2
The client has a heart rate of 70, a slightly irregular rhythm and P waves that come in multiples. What is this rhythm called?
A. Third degree AV block
B. Type 2 second degree AV block
C. Type 1 second degree AV block
D. Junctional escape rhythm
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Type 1 second degree AV block
The correct answer is C: Type 1 second degree AV block. This rhythm is characterized by a slightly irregular rhythm and P waves that come in multiples, known as "grouped beating." In Type 1 AV block, there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped. This is consistent with the description provided in the question.
A: Third degree AV block is characterized by complete dissociation between the atria and ventricles, resulting in an atrial rate that is typically faster than the ventricular rate. This is not the case in the scenario described.
B: Type 2 second degree AV block is characterized by intermittent failure of conduction of P waves to the ventricles, resulting in dropped QRS complexes. This is not consistent with the description provided.
D: Junctional escape rhythm is characterized by an escape rhythm originating from the AV junction, resulting in a heart rate of 40-60 bpm. This is not the rhythm described
Question 3
A patient with abdominal injuries from a motor vehicle crash is scheduled for surgery to remove the spleen. What bodily function will be affected by the removal of this organ?
A. Filtration of waste products
B. Removal of old red blood cells from circulation
C. Clearance of mucous in the tracheobronchial tree
D. Facilitation of glucose to be used by the cell for energy
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Removal of old red blood cells from circulation
The correct answer is B: Removal of old red blood cells from circulation. The spleen plays a crucial role in filtering and removing old or damaged red blood cells from circulation. When the spleen is removed, this function is compromised, leading to a decrease in the body's ability to clear out these cells efficiently. This can result in an increased risk of anemia and other complications related to the buildup of old red blood cells in the bloodstream.
A: Filtration of waste products - While the spleen does play a role in filtering blood, its primary function is related to red blood cells, not waste products.
C: Clearance of mucous in the tracheobronchial tree - This function is primarily carried out by the respiratory system, particularly the cilia and mucous membranes in the airways, not the spleen.
D: Facilitation of glucose to be used by the cell for energy - This function is primarily related to the pancreas and insulin production, not the
Question 4
A newborn infant develops jaundice on day of life 2. Labs are drawn, and she has a hemoglobin of 7.4 g/dL with a reticulocyte count of 8%. Upon peripheral blood smear review, she is found to have bizarre red cell forms with significant polkilocytosis. Although her parents have normal blood counts, on review of their peripheral blood smears, they both have a moderate number of ovalocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the infant's red cell findings?
A. She has an autosomal dominant ankyrin mutation from one of her parents causing hereditary spherocytosis.
B. She has inherited band 3 variants from each parent and will likely need a splenectomy after she turns 5 years old.
C. She has inherited an alpha-spectrin mutation from both of her parents and may experience an improvement in her anemia over time.
D. She has inherited a PKLR variant from each parent, and enzyme testing will be consistent with her diagnosis of pyruvate kinase deficiency.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — She has inherited an alpha-spectrin mutation from both of her parents and may experience an improvement in her anemia over time.
The correct answer is C because the infant's red cell findings of ovalocytes and polikilocytosis are consistent with hereditary elliptocytosis, which is caused by mutations in genes encoding spectrin. In this scenario, the inheritance pattern aligns with the infant receiving an alpha-spectrin mutation from both parents, leading to the observed erythrocyte abnormalities. This condition may improve over time due to compensatory mechanisms.
Choice A (autosomal dominant ankyrin mutation causing hereditary spherocytosis) is incorrect because the clinical presentation and red cell morphology do not support a diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis.
Choice B (inherited band 3 variants and need for splenectomy) is incorrect as the infant's condition does not match the characteristics of hereditary spherocytosis requiring splenectomy.
Choice D (PKLR variant and pyruvate kinase deficiency) is incorrect as the infant's red cell morphology is not indicative
Question 5
After receiving a diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukemia, a patient is visibly distraught, stating, 'I have no idea where to go from here.' How should the nurse prepare to meet this patient's psychosocial needs?
A. Assess the patient's previous experience with the health care system.
B. Reassure the patient that treatment will be challenging but successful.
C. Assess the patient's specific needs for education and support.
D. Identify the patient's plan of medical care.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Assess the patient's specific needs for education and support.
Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer): Assessing the patient's specific needs for education and support is crucial in meeting the psychosocial needs of a patient diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia. By understanding the patient's informational and emotional needs, the nurse can provide tailored support and resources, enhancing the patient's coping abilities and overall well-being. This approach fosters a therapeutic relationship and promotes patient-centered care.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Assessing the patient's previous experience with the health care system is important but may not directly address the immediate psychosocial needs related to the new diagnosis.
B: Reassuring the patient about treatment success is premature and may invalidate the patient's feelings of distress and uncertainty.
D: Identifying the patient's plan of medical care is essential but focuses more on the medical aspect rather than the psychosocial aspect of care.
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Question 6
A patient had a non–ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) 3 days ago. Which nursing intervention included in the plan of care is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
A. Evaluation of the patient’s response to walking in the hallway
B. Completion of the referral form for a home health nurse follow-up
C. Education of the patient about the pathophysiology of heart disease
D. Reinforcement of teaching about the purpose of prescribed medications
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Reinforcement of teaching about the purpose of prescribed medications. This task can be safely delegated to an experienced LPN/LVN as it involves providing information that has already been taught by the RN. The LPN/LVN can reinforce the teaching without interpreting or altering the content. This task does not require critical thinking or assessment skills beyond the scope of practice for an LPN/LVN.
A, evaluation of the patient's response to walking in the hallway, involves physical assessment and monitoring for any adverse signs or symptoms, which requires the RN's expertise.
B, completion of the referral form for a home health nurse follow-up, involves coordination of care and decision-making, which falls under the RN's responsibility.
C, education of the patient about the pathophysiology of heart disease, involves complex medical information and understanding, which is beyond the scope of practice for an LPN/LVN.
What is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to a buildup of fluid in the lungs and other parts of the body?
A. Heart failure
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Heart failure is the correct answer because it is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other parts of the body. This occurs due to the heart's inability to adequately circulate blood, causing congestion and fluid retention. Symptoms include shortness of breath, fatigue, and swelling. Treatment aims to improve heart function and manage symptoms.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B (Cardiomyopathy): Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle, which can lead to heart failure, but it is not the specific condition described in the question.
C (Myocardial infarction): Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, results from a blockage in a coronary artery causing damage to the heart muscle, but it does not directly lead to fluid buildup in the lungs and body.
D (Pulmonary edema): Pulmonary edema is a condition characterized by fluid
Which of the following should the nurse expect to note as a frequent complication for a child with congenital heart disease?
A. Susceptibility to respiratory infection
B. Bleeding tendencies
C. Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
D. Seizure disorder
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Susceptibility to respiratory infection. Children with congenital heart disease often have compromised immune systems due to their cardiac condition, making them more prone to respiratory infections. This is because the heart defect can affect blood flow to the lungs, leading to decreased oxygen levels and weakened lung function. As a result, these children are at higher risk for respiratory complications.
Incorrect choices:
B: Bleeding tendencies - While some heart conditions may lead to clotting issues, bleeding tendencies are not a frequent complication of congenital heart disease.
C: Frequent vomiting and diarrhea - These symptoms are not typically associated with congenital heart disease, unless there are specific underlying conditions causing them.
D: Seizure disorder - Seizures are not a common complication of congenital heart disease; they are more often related to neurological issues or other medical conditions.
The immunity conferred by the tetanus toxoid vaccine is:
A. Artificially acquired passive immunity
B. Naturally acquired active immunity
C. Artificially acquired active immunity
D. Naturally acquired passive immunity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Artificially acquired active immunity. The tetanus toxoid vaccine contains inactivated tetanus toxin, which stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies against tetanus. This process results in the person developing immunity to tetanus in the future. It is considered active immunity because the individual's immune system is actively involved in producing antibodies.
A: Artificially acquired passive immunity involves receiving pre-formed antibodies, which provide immediate but temporary protection. This is not the case with the tetanus toxoid vaccine.
B: Naturally acquired active immunity occurs when a person is exposed to the pathogen and develops immunity through their own immune response. This is not the case with the tetanus toxoid vaccine.
D: Naturally acquired passive immunity involves receiving antibodies from another source, such as through breastfeeding. This is not how the tetanus toxoid vaccine works.
A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what?
A. AML
B. CML
C. MDS
D. ALL
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: ALL (Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia). In this scenario, the patient presents with symptoms of headaches, vomiting, testicular pain, and abnormal blood work showing reduced platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes with a high proportion of immature cells. These findings are characteristic of ALL, a type of leukemia that primarily affects lymphoid cells. The combination of symptoms and blood work results suggests a rapid and aggressive proliferation of immature lymphoid cells, leading to bone marrow failure and symptoms such as anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia. AML (choice A) primarily affects myeloid cells, not lymphoid cells. CML (choice B) typically presents with elevated leukocyte count and presence of the Philadelphia chromosome. MDS (choice C) is a group of disorders characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis leading to cytopenias, but does not typically present with the rapid onset of symptoms seen in this case
The nurse is caring for a client with a dignosis of aortic stenosis. The client reports episodes of angina and passing out recently at home. The client has surgery scheduled in 2 weeks. Which of the following would be the nurse's best explanation about activity at this time?
A. "It is best to avoid strenuous exercise, stairs, and lifting before your surgery."
B. "Take short walks three times daily to prepare for postoperative rehabilitation."
C. "There are no activity restrictions unless the angina reoccurs; then please call the office."
D. "Gradually increase activity before surgery to build stamina for the postoperative period."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because in aortic stenosis, there is an obstruction of blood flow from the heart to the body. Strenuous activities can worsen the condition by increasing the workload on the heart, leading to angina and fainting. Preoperative preparation focuses on reducing the risk of complications during surgery. Therefore, advising the client to avoid strenuous exercise, stairs, and lifting helps minimize the risk of exacerbating symptoms and potential complications before surgery.
Explanation for other choices:
B: Taking short walks may be too strenuous for a client with aortic stenosis and can potentially worsen symptoms.
C: Allowing unrestricted activity can be dangerous for a client with aortic stenosis, as it may lead to worsening symptoms and increased risk of complications.
D: Gradually increasing activity can be risky for a client with aortic stenosis, as it can increase the workload on the heart and exacerbate symptoms.
The correct answer is A: Carbamazepine. This drug is the drug of choice for partial seizures due to its efficacy in controlling focal seizures and its broad spectrum of activity. Carbamazepine works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, reducing neuronal excitability.
Rationale:
- Carbamazepine is a common first-line treatment for partial seizures.
- It is effective in controlling focal seizures.
- It has a broad spectrum of activity against various types of seizures.
- Carbamazepine's mechanism of action involves blocking sodium channels, reducing neuronal excitability.
Summary of other choices:
- B: Ethosuximide is primarily used for absence seizures, not partial seizures.
- C: Diazepam is a short-acting benzodiazepine used for acute seizure management, not as a primary treatment for partial seizures.
- D: Lamotrigine is more commonly used for generalized seizures and may not be as effective for controlling partial seizures.
A calcium channel blocker (CCB) is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instruction is correct?
A. Chew the tablet for faster release of the medication.
B. To increase the effect of the drug, take it with grapefruit juice.
C. If the adverse effects of chest pain, fainting, or dyspnea occur, discontinue the medication immediately.
D. A high-fiber diet with plenty of fluids will help prevent the constipation that may occur.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: A high-fiber diet with plenty of fluids will help prevent the constipation that may occur.
Rationale:
1. CCBs can cause constipation as a side effect due to their action on smooth muscle.
2. A high-fiber diet and adequate fluids help prevent constipation by promoting bowel regularity.
3. Increasing fiber intake can soften stool and facilitate passage, reducing the risk of constipation.
4. Adequate fluid intake is essential to maintain hydration and support digestive function, aiding in the prevention of constipation.
Summary:
A: Chewing the tablet may alter the drug's release mechanism and is not recommended for CCBs.
B: Grapefruit juice can interact with CCBs, potentially increasing drug levels and side effects.
C: Adverse effects like chest pain, fainting, or dyspnea may indicate a serious reaction, but immediate discontinuation should be done under medical guidance, not solely based on patient judgment.
You examine a 10-year-old boy with severe aplastic anemia. He has no dysmorphic features and is at the 50th percentile for height and weight. Family history includes a sister with aplastic anemia unresponsive to anti-human thymocyte globulin (ATG) and cyclosporine who died early in the course of an unrelated donor hematopoietic stem cell transplant complicated by severe mucositis and transplant-related organ toxicities. There are no other siblings. A cousin died of acute myeloid leukemia at age 5 years. A peripheral blood sample test for Fanconi anemia is negative with no increased chromosomal breaks in response to diepoxybutane or mitomycin C. Which of the following is the most important next step in management?
A. Administer ATG and cyclosporine.
B. Search for a donor for matched unrelated transplant.
C. Send a bone marrow aspirate for Fanconi anemia testing.
D. Send a skin fibroblast culture for Fanconi anemia testing.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Send a skin fibroblast culture for Fanconi anemia testing. This is the most important next step because the patient has a family history suggestive of Fanconi anemia, which is an inherited bone marrow failure syndrome. Aplastic anemia in a child with a family history of bone marrow failure syndromes raises suspicion for inherited causes like Fanconi anemia. Testing for Fanconi anemia involves assessing chromosomal breakage in response to DNA cross-linking agents like diepoxybutane or mitomycin C, which is best done using skin fibroblast culture. This specific test can confirm or rule out Fanconi anemia as the underlying cause of aplastic anemia in this patient. The other choices are incorrect because administering ATG and cyclosporine (Choice A) may not be effective if the underlying cause is Fanconi anemia. Searching for a donor for matched unrelated transplant (Choice B) is premature without confirming the diagnosis.
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client after CABG surgery. The client is taking several new medications, including digoxin (Lanoxin), metoprolol (Lopressor), and furosemide (Lasix). The client complains of nausea and anorexia. The nurse is preparing to report this finding to the physician before discharging the client. Which laboratory result will the nurse check before calling the physician?
A. Potassium level
B. Sodium level
C. PT / INR
D. Digoxin level
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Potassium level. After CABG surgery, the client is taking medications that can affect potassium levels, such as furosemide and digoxin. Nausea and anorexia can be symptoms of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of these medications. Therefore, checking the potassium level is crucial to monitor for any electrolyte imbalances that can lead to adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Sodium level - Although important for electrolyte balance, sodium levels are less likely to be affected by the medications mentioned in the scenario and are not typically associated with nausea and anorexia.
C: PT/INR - These are coagulation studies and not directly related to the symptoms presented by the client.
D: Digoxin level - While monitoring digoxin levels is important for toxicity, the symptoms of nausea and anorexia are more indicative of potential electrolyte imbalances rather than digox
LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 5 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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