LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 20

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LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions set 20

You read heart failure, perfusion, and blood-pressure stems and decide what to do before the patient declines. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five cardiovascular questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

You are seeing a 2-year-old girl with new onset of fever and bronchitis. She has maculopapular rash and hepatosplenomegaly. Blood smear shows leukocytosis (100,000/mm3), anemia, and thrombocytopenia. Ancillary tests include fetal hemoglobin of 80% and normal blood karyotype. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Leukemoid Reaction
  2. B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
  3. C. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
  4. D. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML)
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML)

The most likely diagnosis in this case is Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML). JMML is a rare myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm seen in young children. The clinical presentation of fever, rash, hepatosplenomegaly, leukocytosis, anemia, and thrombocytopenia is consistent with JMML. The presence of fetal hemoglobin of 80% is a key finding in JMML, as it is a distinguishing feature. Additionally, a normal blood karyotype rules out chromosomal abnormalities commonly seen in other leukemias. Leukemoid reaction (Choice A) is characterized by a reactive increase in leukocyte count due to an underlying condition, but it does not explain the other findings in this case. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL - Choice B) primarily affects lymphoid cells, not myeloid cells as seen in this case. Chronic myeloid leukemia (C

Question 2

When reviewing the chemistry panel of a newly diagnosed patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia who is lethargic, complaining of flank pain, and experiencing nausea and vomiting, which of the following would you expect to see?

  1. A. Potassium 4.5 mmol/L, phosphorus 8 mg/dL, uric acid 7 mg/dL, calcium 9.0 mg/dL, BUN 12 mg/dL
  2. B. Potassium 6.5 mmol/L, phosphorus 8 mg/dL, uric acid 9 mg/dL, calcium 10 mg/dL, BUN 14 mg/dL
  3. C. Potassium 4 mmol/L, phosphorus 9 mg/dL, uric acid 10 mg/dL, calcium 10 mg/dL, BUN 10 mg/dL
  4. D. Potassium 7 mmol/L, phosphorus 12 mg/dL, uric acid 10 mg/dL, calcium 7 mg/dL, BUN 25 mg/dL
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Potassium 7 mmol/L, phosphorus 12 mg/dL, uric acid 10 mg/dL, calcium 7 mg/dL, BUN 25 mg/dL

Step-by-step rationale: 1. Lethargy, flank pain, nausea, vomiting in leukemia can suggest tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). 2. TLS can cause hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated BUN. 3. Choice D has the highest potassium, phosphorus, uric acid, and BUN levels, and the lowest calcium level. 4. Therefore, choice D is the most consistent with the expected lab findings in tumor lysis syndrome. Summary: - Choice A has normal potassium, phosphorus, uric acid, calcium levels, and lower BUN. - Choice B has high potassium but normal phosphorus, uric acid, calcium, and slightly elevated BUN. - Choice C has low potassium, normal phosphorus, and elevated uric acid, calcium, and BUN. - Choice D aligns most closely with the expected lab findings in tumor lysis syndrome due to the pattern of

Question 3

Which of the following molecular actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of acetazolamide in this patient?

  1. A. Inhibition of carbonic acid dehydration in the tubular lumen
  2. B. Stimulation of bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule
  3. C. Inhibition of Na+ reabsorption in the early distal tubule
  4. D. Stimulation of H+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Inhibition of carbonic acid dehydration in the tubular lumen

The correct answer is A: Inhibition of carbonic acid dehydration in the tubular lumen. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that works in the proximal convoluted tubule of the kidney to reduce bicarbonate reabsorption. By inhibiting carbonic anhydrase, it prevents the conversion of carbonic acid to bicarbonate and H+, leading to increased excretion of bicarbonate in the urine. This results in a systemic metabolic acidosis and a diuretic effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acetazolamide does not directly stimulate bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule, inhibit Na+ reabsorption in the early distal tubule, or stimulate H+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule. The primary mechanism of action of acetazolamide is through carbonic anhydrase inhibition, leading to its therapeutic effects.

Question 4

During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences

  1. A. bleeding from the gums.
  2. B. increase in blood pressure.
  3. C. a decrease in level of consciousness.
  4. D. a nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — a decrease in level of consciousness.

The correct answer is C: a decrease in level of consciousness. This indicates a potential complication such as intracranial hemorrhage, which is a serious side effect of thrombolytic therapy. Stopping the drug infusion is crucial to prevent further harm. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: Bleeding from the gums is a common side effect of thrombolytic therapy and does not necessarily warrant stopping the drug infusion unless it is severe or uncontrollable. B: An increase in blood pressure may be a normal response to the medication and does not necessarily require stopping the infusion. D: A nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia is a common arrhythmia in acute myocardial infarction and may not require stopping the drug infusion unless it progresses to a sustained or unstable rhythm.

Question 5

An important outcome of care for a female client with hypertension has been met when the client is able to do which of the following?

  1. A. Return to her usual activities of daily living
  2. B. Identify actions to counteract two of her modifiable risk factors
  3. C. Lower her blood pressure by 10%
  4. D. Discontinue lifestyle modifications
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Return to her usual activities of daily living

The correct answer is A: Return to her usual activities of daily living. This outcome indicates successful management of hypertension, as it implies that the client's blood pressure is controlled and stable enough for her to resume normal activities without significant limitations. This reflects a holistic approach to care, focusing on improving the client's quality of life. Explanation for other choices: B: Identifying actions to counteract risk factors is important but doesn't necessarily indicate that the client's hypertension is well managed. C: Lowering blood pressure by a specific percentage is not as meaningful as the client being able to function normally in daily life. D: Discontinuing lifestyle modifications would be detrimental as lifestyle changes are crucial for managing hypertension effectively.

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Ten more LPN exams cardiovascular questions

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Question 6

A 77-year-old male is admitted to a unit with a suspected diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). When planning this patient's care, the nurse should be aware of what epidemiologic fact?

  1. A. Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes.
  2. B. Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%.
  3. C. Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%.
  4. D. Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patient's pre-illness level of health.
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Question 7

You are seeing a 12-year-old female who presented to the emergency department with the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. Imaging that was obtained to rule out appendicitis revealed a mass adjacent to the bladder. The mass was surgically resected, and pathology demonstrated a paraganglioma. Which of the studies below would be most useful to determine disease stage for this patient?

  1. A. Bone Scan
  2. B. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid cytology
  3. C. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy
  4. D. Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT
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Question 8

Which of the following subtypes of Hodgkin's lymphoma is common in young women and has good prognosis?

  1. A. Nodular sclerosis
  2. B. Mixed cellularity
  3. C. Lymphocyte predominance
  4. D. Lymphocyte depletion
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Question 9

A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness midmorning. During lunch he has difficulty swallowing food and speaking, and when vital signs are taken 30 minutes later, he is noted to be stuporous and diaphoretic, with a temperature of 38.8° C, pulse of 110 beats/min, and blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg. The nurse should suspect _________ and should ______________.

  1. A. neuroleptic malignant syndrome…place him in a cooling blanket and transfer to ICU
  2. B. anticholinergic toxicity…check vital signs and prepare to use a cooling blanket stat
  3. C. relapse of his psychosis…administer PRN antipsychotic drugs and notify his physician
  4. D. agranulocytosis…hold his antipsychotic and draw blood for a complete blood count
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Question 10

The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective:

  1. A. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
  2. B. Amiloride (Midamor)
  3. C. Both of the above
  4. D. Neither of the above
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Question 11

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal failure and a new myocardial infarction. The nurse who is reviewing laboratory findings would call the doctor to report which of the following results?

  1. A. Potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L
  2. B. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L
  3. C. Calcium level of 7.0 mg/dL
  4. D. Digoxin/digitalis level of 0.8 ng/mL
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Question 12

A peripheral blood smear showing increase in numbers of neutrophils, band cells, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is most suggestive

  1. A. Acute myeloid leukemia
  2. B. Acute lymphoid leukemia
  3. C. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
  4. D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
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Question 13

The client is on low molecular weight heparin. A priority nursing intervention is what?

  1. A. Monitor the heparin level
  2. B. Monitor the aPTT
  3. C. Monitor for hemorrhage
  4. D. Monitor the blood sugar
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Question 14

__________ side effects can occur when antipsychotic medications are taken that manifest as abnormal movements such as akathisia and pseudo-Parkinson symptoms.

  1. A. Extrapyramidal
  2. B. Anticholinergic
  3. C. Serotonergic
  4. D. Adrenergic
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Question 15

A 15-year-old female presents with 1 month of fatigue and 3 days of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her physical exam is unremarkable. A chest x-ray shows a large mediastinal mass that is greater than 33% of the diameter of her chest cavity. A biopsy shows nodular sclerosing, classic Hodgkin lymphoma (cHL). Metastatic workup at diagnosis, including CT scan of neck, chest, abdomen, and pelvis and PET scan, shows no other site of disease. According to the Ann Arbor staging system, the patient has which stage of cHL?

  1. A. Stage I
  2. B. Stage II
  3. C. Stage III
  4. D. Stage IV
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About these LPN exams cardiovascular questions

LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 20 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.