RN exams pharmacology practice questions set 12

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The correct answer is D: Watch for bleeding or excessive bruising. Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent blood clots. The nurse should teach the patient and family members to monitor for signs of bleeding or excessive bruising, as these could indicate a potential complication of the medication. This is crucial for early detection and intervention to prevent serious consequences. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Visual demonstration of intramuscular heparin administration is not applicable to enoxaparin as it is typically administered subcutaneously. B: Prothrombin time and international normalized ratio monitoring are not usually required for enoxaparin as it works through a different mechanism compared to warfarin. C: Avoidance of green leafy vegetables is not necessary for enoxaparin, unlike warfarin which interacts with vitamin K found in green leafy vegetables.

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The correct answer is A because compromised nutrition can lead to deficiencies in essential nutrients required for the production of blood cells and hemoglobin. Iron, vitamins, and minerals obtained from food are crucial for erythropoiesis and maintaining a healthy immune system. Without these nutrients, the body may struggle to produce an adequate amount of healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia and compromised immune function. Choice B is incorrect because excessive fat in the diet is not directly linked to interfering with the production of blood cells and hemoglobin. Choice C is incorrect as inconsistent dieting may affect overall health but is not specifically related to hematopoiesis. Choice D is incorrect because while iron and protein are important for blood cell production, excessive amounts of these elements are unlikely to interfere with the production of blood cells and hemoglobin.

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Adenosine is a medication commonly used to treat certain types of irregular heartbeats, such as supraventricular tachycardia. One of the common side effects of adenosine administration is transient asystole or a brief pause in the electrical activity of the heart. This can cause the heart to stop beating momentarily, leading to a drop in blood pressure and a feeling of lightheadedness in the patient. Therefore, in this scenario where the heart monitor shows an immediate abnormality after adenosine administration, the nurse should prepare to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation and be ready to intervene if the patient's heart rhythm deteriorates further. It is crucial to be proactive and prepared to respond quickly to any adverse effects of the medication to prevent potential harm to the patient. Regular monitoring should also continue to assess the patient's condition and response to treatment.

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A balanced anesthetic technique for producing general anesthesia usually involves a combination of different types of drugs to achieve the desired level of unconsciousness, analgesia, muscle relaxation, and amnesia while minimizing adverse effects. The use of multiple drugs simultaneously allows for lower doses of each drug, reducing the risk of toxicity and adverse side effects. In a typical balanced anesthesia regimen, an inhalation anesthetic is used for the maintenance of anesthesia, a narcotic provides analgesia, a muscle relaxant is used to facilitate intubation and reduce muscle movements during surgery, and an IV barbiturate may be used as an induction agent to initiate anesthesia. Therefore, all of the options provided - an inhalation anesthetic, a narcotic, a muscle relaxant, and an IV barbiturate - are commonly included in a balanced anesthetic technique for producing general anesthesia.

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Correct Answer: C - Increasing the vigilance regarding the client's suicidal precautions Rationale: 1. The client was admitted for severe depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a high suicide risk. 2. Antidepressants can initially increase energy before improving mood, potentially raising suicide risk. 3. As the client becomes more energized and communicative, the risk of impulsive actions, including suicide, may increase. 4. Therefore, increasing vigilance and maintaining strict suicidal precautions are crucial to ensure the client's safety. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Allowing unsupervised passes may expose the client to triggers or opportunities for self-harm. B: Group activities can be beneficial but do not address the immediate safety concern of suicidal risk. D: Assuming suicidal potential has decreased prematurely can be dangerous, as the client may still be at risk.

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The correct answer is B: A corticosteroid. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which is crucial in managing asthma. Corticosteroids are the mainstay of asthma treatment as they help to decrease airway inflammation and prevent asthma symptoms. Choice A, a beta-agonist, is incorrect because beta-agonists work by relaxing the muscles around the airways and are usually used as rescue inhalers for quick relief of asthma symptoms. Choice C, a leukotriene modifier, is incorrect as leukotriene modifiers work by blocking the action of certain immune system chemicals that cause asthma symptoms, but they are not the classification for fluticasone. Choice D, an anticholinergic agent, is incorrect as anticholinergics work by blocking acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes airway constriction, and are typically used in conditions like COPD, not as the

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Chloramphenicol is usually effective in typhoid (C), caused by Salmonella typhi, due to its broad-spectrum activity and excellent tissue penetration, including intracellular bacteria. It's not used for pulmonary tuberculosis (A), where specific anti-TB drugs like isoniazid are required, as chloramphenicol lacks activity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It's effective in epiglottitis (B) caused by Haemophilus influenzae, especially in resource-limited settings, but cephalosporins are preferred. It's also effective in bacterial meningitis (D), penetrating the CSF well to treat H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, and N. meningitidis infections. Bacterial conjunctivitis (original E) responds to topical chloramphenicol. Its use in typhoid reflects its historical efficacy, though resistance and rare aplastic anemia risk limit its routine use today, favoring fluoroquinolones or ceftriaxone in many regions.

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The correct answer is B: Replacing deficient thyroid hormone. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4). In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to various symptoms. By prescribing levothyroxine, we are supplying the body with the thyroid hormone it lacks, thereby replacing the deficient hormone and restoring normal thyroid function. Explanation of other choices: A: Increasing the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is incorrect because levothyroxine does not directly affect TSH production. C: Inhibiting thyroid hormone synthesis is incorrect because levothyroxine does not inhibit thyroid hormone production. D: Increasing the metabolism of thyroid hormones is incorrect because levothyroxine does not directly increase the metabolism of existing thyroid hormones; it simply replaces the deficient hormone.

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The correct answer is D: Induction of powerful uterine contracture. Ergonovine is a uterotonic agent that works by stimulating uterine contractions, which helps control postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. The drug acts directly on the smooth muscle of the uterus, leading to increased tone and decreased bleeding. A: Selective constriction of uterine arteries is incorrect because ergonovine primarily acts on the uterine muscle itself, not the blood vessels supplying the uterus. B: Endothelin release in the uterine vascular bed is incorrect as ergonovine does not directly affect endothelin release. C: Platelet aggregation in the uterine vascular bed is incorrect as ergonovine's action is not related to platelet aggregation but rather to uterine muscle contraction. In summary, the therapeutic effect of ergonovine in this patient is mediated by its ability to induce powerful uterine contr

Correct answer:

Chloramphenicol is usually effective in typhoid (C), caused by Salmonella typhi, due to its broad-spectrum activity and excellent tissue penetration, including intracellular bacteria. It's not used for pulmonary tuberculosis (A), where specific anti-TB drugs like isoniazid are required, as chloramphenicol lacks activity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It's effective in epiglottitis (B) caused by Haemophilus influenzae, especially in resource-limited settings, but cephalosporins are preferred. It's also effective in bacterial meningitis (D), penetrating the CSF well to treat H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, and N. meningitidis infections. Bacterial conjunctivitis (original E) responds to topical chloramphenicol. Its use in typhoid reflects its historical efficacy, though resistance and rare aplastic anemia risk limit its routine use today, favoring fluoroquinolones or ceftriaxone in many regions.