You pick the legal, honest next step when rights, consent, or a policy collide with a request. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five ethics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage liver disease. What medication should be avoided?
A. Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity.
B. NSAIDs due to gastrointestinal bleeding risk.
C. Diuretics due to fluid imbalance.
D. Opioids due to potential for dependence.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity.
The correct answer is A: Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity. End-stage liver disease compromises the liver's ability to metabolize drugs effectively, increasing the risk of liver damage. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, and in high doses or prolonged use, it can lead to liver toxicity, making it a medication to avoid in patients with liver disease. NSAIDs (option B) are associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but they are not specifically contraindicated in end-stage liver disease. Diuretics (option C) are commonly used in liver disease to manage fluid imbalance. Opioids (option D) are generally safe for pain management in liver disease as they are not primarily metabolized by the liver. Therefore, acetaminophen should be avoided in this case to prevent further liver damage.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage liver disease. What medication should be avoided?
A. Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity.
B. NSAIDs due to gastrointestinal bleeding risk.
C. Diuretics due to fluid imbalance.
D. Opioids due to potential for dependence.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity.
The correct answer is A: 'Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity.' Clients with end-stage liver disease are at a higher risk of developing liver toxicity from medications. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and in individuals with compromised liver function, it can lead to further damage. Therefore, it is important to avoid acetaminophen in these patients to prevent worsening their condition. NSAIDs (Option B) can indeed increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but in this case, the focus should be on liver health. Diuretics (Option C) are commonly used to manage fluid balance in liver disease patients and opioids (Option D) can be safely used for pain control in this population. However, acetaminophen should be avoided due to its potential to cause liver toxicity.
Question 3
A nurse is interested in learning the phases of the disaster continuum and realizes it has many similarities to the nursing process. To better understand the phases of a disaster, which is true when comparing the phases of the disaster continuum to the nursing process?
A. The preparedness phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the assessment and planning steps of the nursing process.
B. The recovery phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the planning step of the nursing process.
C. The recovery phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the implementation step of the nursing process.
D. The response relief phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the evaluation step of the nursing process.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The preparedness phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the assessment and planning steps of the nursing process.
The correct answer is A because the preparedness phase of the disaster continuum aligns with the assessment and planning steps of the nursing process. In both situations, assessment involves identifying potential risks or needs, while planning entails developing strategies to address those risks or needs. Preparedness in disasters is about assessing vulnerabilities and creating plans to mitigate risks, which is akin to the initial steps in the nursing process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately match the phases of the disaster continuum with the corresponding steps in the nursing process. B incorrectly associates recovery with planning, C incorrectly links recovery with implementation, and D incorrectly pairs response relief with evaluation.
Question 4
Health care professionals have been activated to respond to a disaster, and the registered nurse who is coordinating the effort realizes that: (select all that apply)
A. in the event of a mass casualty incident, care is prioritized to those who have the greatest chance of surviving.
B. communities should use their own resources first to attempt to stabilize and organize the response.
C. state assistance occurs any time a disaster occurs, regardless of the community's resources.
D. the emergency operating plan developed by one central agency rather than individual facilities should be put into operation.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — in the event of a mass casualty incident, care is prioritized to those who have the greatest chance of surviving.
The correct answer is A because in a mass casualty incident, triage principles dictate that care should be prioritized to those with the greatest chance of survival to maximize overall survival rates. This ensures that limited resources are used efficiently.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Using only community resources first may not be sufficient in a large-scale disaster and could delay the response, leading to unnecessary loss of life.
C: State assistance may not be automatically available in every disaster situation and is typically coordinated based on the severity and impact of the disaster.
D: Emergency operating plans should be tailored to individual facilities' needs and capabilities, as a one-size-fits-all approach may not be effective in all scenarios.
Question 5
Who achieved widespread recognition during the Civil War, distributing supplies to wounded soldiers and caring for the casualties with the help of a team of nurses?
A. Clara Barton
B. Dorothea Dix
C. Lemuel Shattuck
D. Lillian Wald
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Clara Barton
The correct answer is A: Clara Barton. Barton achieved widespread recognition during the Civil War for her efforts in distributing supplies to wounded soldiers and caring for casualties with a team of nurses. She is known as the "Angel of the Battlefield" for her dedication and service during the war. Dorothea Dix was known for her advocacy for mental health reform, not specifically for her work during the Civil War. Lemuel Shattuck was a public health advocate but did not have a direct role in providing care during the Civil War. Lillian Wald was a pioneering public health nurse but her work was mainly focused on urban healthcare reform, not specifically during the Civil War. Clara Barton's direct involvement and impact during the Civil War make her the correct choice.
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Question 6
Who achieved widespread recognition during the Civil War, distributing supplies to wounded soldiers and caring for the casualties with the help of a team of nurses?
A. Clara Barton
B. Dorothea Dix
C. Lemuel Shattuck
D. Lillian Wald
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Clara Barton. Barton achieved widespread recognition during the Civil War for her efforts in distributing supplies to wounded soldiers and caring for casualties with a team of nurses. She is known as the "Angel of the Battlefield" for her dedication and service during the war. Dorothea Dix was known for her advocacy for mental health reform, not specifically for her work during the Civil War. Lemuel Shattuck was a public health advocate but did not have a direct role in providing care during the Civil War. Lillian Wald was a pioneering public health nurse but her work was mainly focused on urban healthcare reform, not specifically during the Civil War. Clara Barton's direct involvement and impact during the Civil War make her the correct choice.
Which task is most likely to be considered in a state's practice act as appropriate to delegate to a LPN/LVN if the patient's condition is stable and competence in the task has been established?
A. Administer an enema for an elective surgery patient.
B. Administer an antiarrhythmic medication IV while interpreting the patient's rhythm on the cardiac monitor.
C. Develop a plan of care for a stable patient admitted for observation after a head injury.
D. Teach a patient how to instill eye drops for glaucoma.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. Teaching a patient how to instill eye drops for glaucoma is a task that can be appropriately delegated to an LPN/LVN when the patient is stable and competence has been established. Here's the rationale:
1. Teaching is within the scope of practice for LPN/LVNs as it involves providing education and instructions to patients.
2. Administering medications IV (option B) requires a higher level of assessment and monitoring skills, making it inappropriate for delegation to an LPN/LVN.
3. Developing a plan of care (option C) involves critical thinking and decision-making skills beyond the scope of an LPN/LVN.
4. Administering an enema (option A) may involve assessing the patient's condition and response, which is beyond the typical scope of an LPN/LVN.
To ensure that nursing legislation is current and is reviewed by specific dates, if a nurse practice act fails to be reviewed, it is automatically rescinded under which law?
A. Nurse review act
B. Sunset legislation
C. Mandatory revocation
D. Grandfathering
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Sunset legislation. Sunset legislation mandates that laws, including nurse practice acts, must be reviewed periodically to determine if they are still needed. If a nurse practice act is not reviewed by the specified date, it is automatically rescinded. This process ensures that laws are current and relevant.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Nurse review act - There is no specific law called the Nurse review act that pertains to the automatic rescinding of nurse practice acts.
C: Mandatory revocation - This choice does not align with the process of automatic rescinding based on a failure to review.
D: Grandfathering - Grandfathering refers to exempting individuals from new regulations based on previous circumstances, not the automatic rescinding of laws.
A client is in extreme pain after he was involved in a motor vehicle accident, and morphine has been ordered every hour for pain. The nurse injects saline into the client's IV line and takes the morphine for herself. The nurse is violating which principle of ethics?
A. Autonomy
B. Utilitarianism
C. Beneficence
D. Dilemmas
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Beneficence. Beneficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to act in the best interest of the client and to do good. In this scenario, the nurse is not acting in the best interest of the client by withholding the prescribed medication for personal gain. This action goes against the principle of beneficence as it is causing harm to the client by denying them the necessary pain relief.
Summary:
A: Autonomy is the right of the client to make their own decisions, which is not the main issue in this scenario.
B: Utilitarianism focuses on maximizing overall good for the greatest number of people, which is not directly applicable here.
D: Dilemmas do not represent a specific ethical principle being violated in this situation.
Each month data on admission assessments that are based on the following standard are entered: "All patients will be assessed by an RN within 2 hours of admission." The target goal for this standard is 97% compliance. Data are displayed on a graph that shows number and time of admission assessments and compliance variation limits. This pictorial representation is:
A. Pareto chart.
B. control chart.
C. deployment chart.
D. top-down flowchart.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: control chart. A control chart is used to display data over time and indicate variations within set limits, making it ideal for monitoring compliance with a standard like "All patients will be assessed by an RN within 2 hours of admission." The control chart allows for easy identification of trends, shifts, or patterns that may indicate a need for corrective action to maintain the 97% compliance goal.
A: Pareto chart is used to identify the most significant factors contributing to a problem, not to monitor compliance over time.
C: Deployment chart is not a standard tool in quality control or process monitoring.
D: A top-down flowchart is used to depict the sequence of steps in a process, not to monitor compliance with a standard over time.
When deciding whether and when a task should be completed, a nurse must:
A. complete all tasks as they are thought of to prevent having to take time to consider which is most important.
B. procrastinate and hope that someone will volunteer to do it.
C. ask, "What will happen if I don't complete the task now?"
D. view large projects holistically and not as many small pieces.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: ask, "What will happen if I don't complete the task now?" This is the best approach as it helps prioritize tasks based on their urgency and importance. By considering the consequences of not completing a task immediately, the nurse can focus on critical tasks first to ensure patient safety and efficient workflow.
Choice A is incorrect because completing all tasks as they are thought of without prioritizing can lead to neglecting important tasks and compromising patient care. Choice B is incorrect as procrastination is not a professional or effective way to manage tasks in a healthcare setting. Choice D is incorrect as viewing large projects holistically is important, but it doesn't address the immediate need to prioritize individual tasks.
A. men leaving nursing to enter the armed services.
B. traditional 8-hour shifts to nurse burnout and compassion fatigue.
C. a focus on preventable diseases.
D. a decrease in nursing research.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: a focus on preventable diseases. In the 1990s, nursing shifted towards preventative care due to the rise in chronic diseases. Nurses focused on educating patients on disease prevention strategies and promoting healthy lifestyles. This shift was in response to the increasing healthcare costs associated with treating preventable illnesses.
A: Men leaving nursing to enter the armed services is irrelevant to the characterization of nursing in the 1990s.
B: Traditional 8-hour shifts leading to nurse burnout and compassion fatigue may have been a challenge in the 1990s, but it does not characterize the entire nursing profession during that time.
D: There was actually an increase in nursing research during the 1990s, so this choice is incorrect.
A nurse is concerned about a trend in the hospital to regularly "float" nurses to different areas of the hospital based on staff shortage regardless of recent experience in caring for the population on the unit. When deciding to accept a staffing assignment in this situation, the nurse considers a "safe harbor." What is meant by "safe harbor"?
A. In an emergency situation, nurses may move patients to one location designated to be areas safe from natural disasters or acts of terrorism.
B. Nurses work in teams to care for patients who have no communicable disease and do not pose a safety issue due to infection.
C. Horizontal violence is not tolerated and nurses report any form of violence to administration.
D. It is written a notice about recurrent staffing issues that allows nurses to continue to care for patients placed in their care but protects their nurse's license while an investigation is conducted.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because "safe harbor" refers to a legal provision that protects nurses when they feel unsafe accepting a staffing assignment due to lack of recent experience or competency. By invoking safe harbor, nurses can continue caring for patients while an investigation is conducted to ensure patient safety and protect the nurse's license. This process allows nurses to voice concerns without fear of reprisal.
Option A is incorrect as it refers to a disaster response plan, unrelated to safe harbor. Option B is incorrect as it discusses patient care teams and infectious diseases, not safe harbor protections. Option C is incorrect because it addresses reporting violence, which is not directly related to safe harbor provisions for staffing assignments.
A nurse manager has calculated that providing 75 hours of direct nursing care per day requires that 120 hours must actually be worked by nursing staff. The manager is involved in: (select all that apply)
A. developing the capital budget.
B. applying productivity metric.
C. monitoring the labor budget.
D. incremental budgeting processes.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: applying productivity metric. The nurse manager is calculating the ratio of direct nursing care hours to total hours worked, which is a productivity metric. This metric helps assess the efficiency of the nursing staff in delivering care. Developing the capital budget (A) involves planning for long-term investments, not daily staffing calculations. Monitoring the labor budget (C) involves tracking expenses related to staff salaries and benefits, but not necessarily productivity metrics. Incremental budgeting processes (D) refer to budgeting based on past budgets with incremental changes, not specific productivity metrics. Therefore, the nurse manager is primarily involved in applying a productivity metric to assess nursing staff efficiency.
The nursing executive team met to review last year's productivity metric to strategize for the upcoming year's metric. The team wants to be certain the productivity metric shows productivity was:
A. high.
B. low.
C. balanced.
D. iterative.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: balanced. In a professional setting, a balanced productivity metric indicates that productivity was at an optimal level, not too high or too low. This implies that the team wants to ensure that productivity was neither excessively high nor low, but rather appropriately managed. Option A (high) and B (low) are incorrect as they represent extreme ends of the spectrum, which may not accurately reflect the desired productivity level. Option D (iterative) is incorrect because it refers to a process of repetition and refinement, which is not directly related to the level of productivity achieved. Therefore, the most suitable choice in this context is C: balanced, as it aligns with the team's goal of maintaining an optimal level of productivity.
RN exams ethics practice questions, set 11 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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