You catch glucose, thyroid, and steroid problems from the labs and symptoms in the stem. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five endocrine questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following is true about the endocrine system compared to the nervous system?
A. A single hormone can target many different responses, whereas a nerve only targets a single response.
B. Blood can carry all the same hormones throughout the body simultaneously, producing responses all over the body; nerve cells can only target a small number of cells.
C. Nerve cells and blood work together. The endocrine has nothing to do with the nervous system.
D. Endocrine hormones only target a very small number of precise responses.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Blood can carry all the same hormones throughout the body simultaneously, producing responses all over the body; nerve cells can only target a small number of cells.
The correct answer is B because the endocrine system releases hormones into the bloodstream, allowing them to reach all parts of the body simultaneously and produce widespread responses. In contrast, the nervous system sends signals through nerve cells, which can only target a small number of specific cells. This difference in distribution and reach of signals is a key distinction between the endocrine and nervous systems.
Choice A is incorrect because a single hormone can indeed target multiple responses in different parts of the body, similar to how a nerve signal can affect multiple cells along its path.
Choice C is incorrect as nerve cells and the endocrine system can interact and influence each other's functions, such as in the case of stress response involving both systems.
Choice D is incorrect because endocrine hormones can have broad effects on various organs and tissues, not limited to a small number of precise responses.
Question 2
This adrenal cortical mineralocorticoid helps regulate salt and water balance.
A. Aldosterone
B. Glucagon
C. Cortisol
D. ADH
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Aldosterone
The correct answer is A: Aldosterone. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex that specifically regulates salt and water balance in the body. It acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water, thus helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Glucagon - Glucagon is a hormone produced by the pancreas that primarily regulates blood sugar levels by promoting the release of glucose from the liver. It does not play a role in salt and water balance regulation.
C: Cortisol - Cortisol is a glucocorticoid that is involved in the body's response to stress and helps regulate metabolism, immune response, and inflammation. It does not have a direct role in salt and water balance.
D: ADH (antidiuretic hormone) - ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and acts on the kidneys to regulate water balance by increasing water reabsorption. While it is involved
Question 3
This adrenal cortical mineralocorticoid helps regulate salt and water balance.
A. Aldosterone
B. Glucagon
C. Cortisol
D. ADH
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Aldosterone
The correct answer is A: Aldosterone. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex that specifically regulates salt and water balance in the body. It acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water, thus helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Glucagon - Glucagon is a hormone produced by the pancreas that primarily regulates blood sugar levels by promoting the release of glucose from the liver. It does not play a role in salt and water balance regulation.
C: Cortisol - Cortisol is a glucocorticoid that is involved in the body's response to stress and helps regulate metabolism, immune response, and inflammation. It does not have a direct role in salt and water balance.
D: ADH (antidiuretic hormone) - ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and acts on the kidneys to regulate water balance by increasing water reabsorption. While it is involved
Question 4
Which of the following is true about the endocrine system compared to the nervous system?
A. A single hormone can target many different responses, whereas a nerve only targets a single response.
B. Blood can carry all the same hormones throughout the body simultaneously, producing responses all over the body; nerve cells can only target a small number of cells.
C. Nerve cells and blood work together. The endocrine has nothing to do with the nervous system.
D. Endocrine hormones only target a very small number of precise responses.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Blood can carry all the same hormones throughout the body simultaneously, producing responses all over the body; nerve cells can only target a small number of cells.
The correct answer is B because the endocrine system releases hormones into the bloodstream, allowing them to reach all parts of the body simultaneously and produce widespread responses. In contrast, the nervous system sends signals through nerve cells, which can only target a small number of specific cells. This difference in distribution and reach of signals is a key distinction between the endocrine and nervous systems.
Choice A is incorrect because a single hormone can indeed target multiple responses in different parts of the body, similar to how a nerve signal can affect multiple cells along its path.
Choice C is incorrect as nerve cells and the endocrine system can interact and influence each other's functions, such as in the case of stress response involving both systems.
Choice D is incorrect because endocrine hormones can have broad effects on various organs and tissues, not limited to a small number of precise responses.
Question 5
Diabetes mellitus occurs due to deficiency of:
A. Glucagon
B. Thyroxin
C. Insulin
D. Melatonin
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Insulin
Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Insulin) is correct:
1. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates blood sugar levels.
2. Diabetes mellitus is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels due to inadequate insulin production or ineffective use of insulin.
3. The deficiency of insulin leads to the inability to properly regulate blood sugar levels, resulting in diabetes mellitus.
4. Glucagon (choice A) is a hormone that increases blood sugar levels, so its deficiency would not cause diabetes.
5. Thyroxin (choice B) is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland and is not directly related to diabetes.
6. Melatonin (choice D) is a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles and is not involved in blood sugar regulation.
Summary:
Insulin is the correct choice because its deficiency directly leads to diabetes mellitus, while the other choices do not play a significant role in the development of this condition.
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Question 6
Botulism is a serious and sometimes fatal disorder caused by Botulinum toxin. How is Botulinum toxin exerting its effects?
A. Massive release of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla
B. Blockade of alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
C. Stimulation of acetylcholinesterase enzyme
D. Blockade of acetylcholine release from all cholinergic nerves
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Blockade of acetylcholine release from all cholinergic nerves. Botulinum toxin exerts its effects by inhibiting the release of acetylcholine from presynaptic nerve terminals at neuromuscular junctions. This leads to muscle paralysis, which is a characteristic feature of botulism.
A: Massive release of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla is incorrect because botulinum toxin does not affect the adrenal medulla or adrenaline release.
B: Blockade of alpha and beta adrenergic receptors is incorrect because botulinum toxin does not directly block adrenergic receptors.
C: Stimulation of acetylcholinesterase enzyme is incorrect because botulinum toxin inhibits acetylcholine release rather than stimulating acetylcholinesterase.
In summary, the correct answer D directly correlates with the mechanism of action of Botulinum toxin, while the other choices are unrelated to how Botulinum toxin exerts
Botulism is a serious and sometimes fatal disorder caused by Botulinum toxin. How is Botulinum toxin exerting its effects?
A. Massive release of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla
B. Blockade of alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
C. Stimulation of acetylcholinesterase enzyme
D. Blockade of acetylcholine release from all cholinergic nerves
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Blockade of acetylcholine release from all cholinergic nerves. Botulinum toxin exerts its effects by inhibiting the release of acetylcholine from presynaptic nerve terminals at neuromuscular junctions. This leads to muscle paralysis, which is a characteristic feature of botulism.
A: Massive release of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla is incorrect because botulinum toxin does not affect the adrenal medulla or adrenaline release.
B: Blockade of alpha and beta adrenergic receptors is incorrect because botulinum toxin does not directly block adrenergic receptors.
C: Stimulation of acetylcholinesterase enzyme is incorrect because botulinum toxin inhibits acetylcholine release rather than stimulating acetylcholinesterase.
In summary, the correct answer D directly correlates with the mechanism of action of Botulinum toxin, while the other choices are unrelated to how Botulinum toxin exerts
Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, and acidosis are:
A. most apt to be caused by a deficiency of insulin.
B. characteristic of diabetes insipidus.
C. the consequences of a hormone-secreting tumor of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
D. indicative of a deficiency of ADH.
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct:
1. Hyperglycemia is high blood sugar due to insufficient insulin to regulate glucose levels.
2. Glucosuria is the presence of glucose in urine, indicating excess blood sugar not being reabsorbed.
3. Polyuria is increased urine production due to osmotic diuresis from excess glucose in the urine.
4. Acidosis results from the breakdown of fats in the absence of sufficient glucose utilization.
5. All these symptoms align with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, where insulin deficiency leads to these metabolic disturbances.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to inadequate ADH, not hyperglycemia.
C: Hormone-secreting tumor of beta cells would lead to hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia.
D: ADH deficiency would result in dilute urine and electrolyte imbalances
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by the overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands, leading to elevated levels of calcium in the blood. This excessive calcium can cause calcification in various tissues, including the basal ganglia of the brain. The calcification of the basal ganglia in primary hyperparathyroidism is a well-known radiological finding and can be visualized on imaging studies such as CT scans or MRI. Hypoparathyroidism, on the other hand, is characterized by low levels of PTH and results in decreased serum calcium levels, making it an unlikely cause of basal ganglia calcification. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with chronic kidney disease and is also characterized by high PTH levels, but basal ganglia calcification is not a typical manifestation of this condition. Milk-alkali syndrome is a disorder characterized by excessive intake of
A 35-year-old female presents to your office for a regular check-up. Her only complaint is recurrent migraine headaches, which have increased in frequency over the years. On examination, her blood pressure is elevated at 150/70. You decide to start her on antihypertensive therapy that is also used for prophylaxis of migraines. Which medication is it?
A. Clonidine
B. Prazosin
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Propranolol
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that is commonly used for migraine prophylaxis. It helps reduce the frequency and severity of migraines by blocking the action of adrenaline on blood vessels in the brain. In this case, the patient has elevated blood pressure and migraines, so starting her on propranolol can address both issues effectively.
Choice A: Clonidine is an alpha-2 agonist used for hypertension, but it is not commonly used for migraine prophylaxis.
Choice B: Prazosin is an alpha-1 blocker primarily used for the treatment of hypertension, but it is not typically used for migraine prophylaxis.
Choice C: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used for hypertension by reducing blood volume, but it is not effective for migraine prophylaxis.
In summary, propranolol is the most appropriate choice as it addresses both the elevated blood pressure and the recurrent
A. NONE OF THE ABOVE (They are both chemical messengers that can sometimes be chemically identical and both produce molecules that act on receptors)
B. Hormones travel through the synaptic cleft while neurotransmitters travel through the bloodstream.
C. Hormones act on receptors while neurotransmitters travel through the bloodstream.
D. Both travel through the bloodstream to reach their target tissues.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because hormones and neurotransmitters are both chemical messengers that can sometimes be chemically identical and produce molecules that act on receptors in target cells. This is correct as both hormones and neurotransmitters are signaling molecules that carry messages between cells.
Choice B is incorrect because hormones typically travel through the bloodstream to reach target tissues, while neurotransmitters travel across the synaptic cleft to transmit signals between neurons.
Choice C is incorrect because hormones also act on receptors in target cells, not just neurotransmitters. Both hormones and neurotransmitters can act on specific receptors to elicit a cellular response.
Choice D is incorrect because neurotransmitters primarily travel through the synaptic cleft to reach the target cell, while hormones travel through the bloodstream to reach their target tissues.
Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, and acidosis are:
A. most apt to be caused by a deficiency of insulin.
B. characteristic of diabetes insipidus.
C. the consequences of a hormone-secreting tumor of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
D. indicative of a deficiency of ADH.
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct:
1. Hyperglycemia is high blood sugar due to insufficient insulin to regulate glucose levels.
2. Glucosuria is the presence of glucose in urine, indicating excess blood sugar not being reabsorbed.
3. Polyuria is increased urine production due to osmotic diuresis from excess glucose in the urine.
4. Acidosis results from the breakdown of fats in the absence of sufficient glucose utilization.
5. All these symptoms align with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, where insulin deficiency leads to these metabolic disturbances.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to inadequate ADH, not hyperglycemia.
C: Hormone-secreting tumor of beta cells would lead to hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia.
D: ADH deficiency would result in dilute urine and electrolyte imbalances
Some medications for relief of cold/allergy symptoms contain pseudoephedrine, which acts as a decongestant. If a patient who is taking an MAO inhibitor takes pseudoephedrine, what is the likely outcome?
A. Acute bronchospasm/asthma due to ACh release from the adrenal medulla
B. Hypertensive crisis, possible stroke
C. Heart rate and contractile force would drop significantly and quickly
D. The cold symptoms would quickly get worse (increased secretions)
Correct answer:
Step 1: MAO inhibitors prevent the breakdown of neurotransmitters like norepinephrine.
Step 2: Pseudoephedrine stimulates the release of norepinephrine.
Step 3: The combination can lead to excessive norepinephrine, causing hypertension and potential stroke.
Therefore, the likely outcome when a patient taking an MAO inhibitor also takes pseudoephedrine is a hypertensive crisis and possible stroke (Choice B).
Summary:
- Choice A (acute bronchospasm/asthma due to ACh release from the adrenal medulla) is incorrect because pseudoephedrine does not directly cause this response.
- Choice C (heart rate and contractile force would drop significantly and quickly) is incorrect as pseudoephedrine tends to increase heart rate and blood pressure.
- Choice D (the cold symptoms would quickly get worse - increased secretions) is incorrect as pseudoephedrine is a decongestant and would not worsen cold symptoms
A nurse is to administer a unit of whole blood to a postoperative client. What does the nurse do to ensure the safety of the blood transfusion?
A. Asks the client to both say and spell their full name before starting the blood transfusion
B. Ensures that another qualified healthcare professional checks the unit before administering
C. Checks the blood identification numbers with the laboratory technician at the Blood Bank at the time it is dispersed
D. Ensures that all staff wear appropriate personal protective equipment during the transfusion process
Correct answer:
Ensuring the safety of a blood transfusion is crucial to prevent potential errors or adverse reactions. Checking the blood identification numbers with the laboratory technician at the Blood Bank when the blood is dispersed helps confirm that the correct blood product is being administered to the right patient, reducing the risk of transfusion reactions. The other choices are incorrect because asking the client to say and spell their full name (Choice A) is a part of the identification process but not specific to ensuring the safety of the blood transfusion. While having another qualified healthcare professional check the unit (Choice B) is a good practice, the direct verification with the Blood Bank technician is a more critical step in ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Choice D is irrelevant to ensuring the safety of the blood transfusion as it addresses infection control measures.
A 35-year-old female presents to your office for a regular check-up. Her only complaint is recurrent migraine headaches, which have increased in frequency over the years. On examination, her blood pressure is elevated at 150/70. You decide to start her on antihypertensive therapy that is also used for prophylaxis of migraines. Which medication is it?
A. Clonidine
B. Prazosin
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Propranolol
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that is commonly used for migraine prophylaxis. It helps reduce the frequency and severity of migraines by blocking the action of adrenaline on blood vessels in the brain. In this case, the patient has elevated blood pressure and migraines, so starting her on propranolol can address both issues effectively.
Choice A: Clonidine is an alpha-2 agonist used for hypertension, but it is not commonly used for migraine prophylaxis.
Choice B: Prazosin is an alpha-1 blocker primarily used for the treatment of hypertension, but it is not typically used for migraine prophylaxis.
Choice C: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used for hypertension by reducing blood volume, but it is not effective for migraine prophylaxis.
In summary, propranolol is the most appropriate choice as it addresses both the elevated blood pressure and the recurrent
RN exams endocrine practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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