RN exams community health practice questions, set 27
RN exams · community health
RN exams community health practice questionsset 27
You think beyond the bed: populations, culture, and the referral that actually gets used. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five community health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Congress's legal base for actions in health care includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Providing for the general welfare
B. Raising funds to support research
C. Regulating commerce among the states
D. Providing spending power
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Providing for the general welfare
The correct answer is A: Providing for the general welfare. This is derived from the General Welfare Clause in the US Constitution, granting Congress the authority to pass laws for the general welfare of the country. This clause has been interpreted broadly to include legislation related to health care.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Raising funds to support research - While Congress can allocate funds for research purposes, it is not the primary legal basis for actions in health care.
C: Regulating commerce among the states - This refers to the Commerce Clause, which gives Congress the power to regulate interstate commerce, but it is not the primary legal basis for health care legislation.
D: Providing spending power - While Congress has the power to allocate funds for various purposes, including health care, the primary legal basis for health care actions lies in the General Welfare Clause.
Question 2
Identify the formal organization of public health services from a global to local level.
A. Local public health departments protect the health of the citizens that live in their county, municipality, or township. In conjunction with the state public health department andthe Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, they conduct routine surveillance to help identify an increase in potential outbreaks
B. Once there is a disease outbreak, local health departments participate in the outbreak investigation in coordination withthe state public health department and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
C. Hospitals are licensed by state and federal agencies, not local health departments.
D. Local public health department in coordination with the state public health department and the Centers for DiseaseControl and Prevention implement and monitor quarantineefforts in the event of communicable disease outbreak that
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Local public health departments protect the health of the citizens that live in their county, municipality, or township. In conjunction with the state public health department andthe Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, they conduct routine surveillance to help identify an increase in potential outbreaks
Step 1: Local public health departments protect the health of citizens in their jurisdiction.
Step 2: They work in conjunction with state health departments and the CDC for surveillance.
Step 3: This collaboration ensures early detection of potential outbreaks.
Step 4: The coordinated effort helps in implementing timely interventions.
Step 5: Hospitals are regulated by state and federal agencies, not local health departments.
Step 6: Quarantine efforts during outbreaks are implemented by the collaboration of local, state, and CDC.
Overall, choice A is correct as it accurately describes the formal organization of public health services from a global to local level, emphasizing the collaborative approach between local, state, and national health entities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fully capture the hierarchical structure and collaboration involved in public health services.
Question 3
What is the goal of Healthy People 2020?
A. To improve the quality and years of healthy life
B. To reduce health disparities among different populations
C. To promote healthy behaviors across the lifespan
D. To achieve health equity and eliminate health disparities
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — To achieve health equity and eliminate health disparities
The correct answer is D: To achieve health equity and eliminate health disparities. This is the goal of Healthy People 2020 as it aims to ensure that everyone has the opportunity to achieve their highest level of health. Health equity involves providing opportunities for all individuals to reach their full health potential, regardless of their social or economic status. By eliminating health disparities, the goal is to address the root causes of health inequities and promote fairness in health outcomes.
Choice A is incorrect as it focuses solely on improving the quality and years of healthy life without addressing disparities. Choice B is incorrect as it specifically mentions reducing health disparities but does not mention achieving health equity. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes promoting healthy behaviors but does not encompass the broader goal of health equity and eliminating disparities.
Question 4
The nurse identifies the diagnosis of Ineffective Protection as appropriate for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which intervention should the nurse include when planning this patient’s care?
A. Monitor laboratory findings
B. Provide appropriate skincare
C. Practice careful hand hygiene
D. Administer prescribed medications
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Provide appropriate skincare
Ineffective Protection is a nursing diagnosis that involves a compromised ability to guard against health threats. Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus are prone to skin rashes, lesions, and photosensitivity due to the autoimmune nature of the disease. Providing appropriate skincare is essential in managing the skin manifestations of lupus, such as using gentle cleansers, moisturizers, and sunscreen to protect the skin from further damage. Proper skincare can help maintain skin integrity and prevent infections, which are crucial aspects of protecting patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. While monitoring laboratory findings, practicing careful hand hygiene, and administering prescribed medications are all important aspects of care for lupus patients, providing appropriate skincare directly addresses the Ineffective Protection diagnosis by focusing on protecting the patient's skin health.
Question 5
According to Campinha-Bacote's "Process of Cultural Competemility in the Delivery of Healthcare Services" model, which question by a nurse represents the "E" in the mnemonic "A-S-K-E-D" for self-examination?
A. "Am I aware of my prejudices and biases and the presence of racism and other ‘isms'?"
B. "Do I know how to conduct a culturally specific history, physical, mental health, medication, and spiritual assessment in a culturally sensitive manner?"
C. "Do I have knowledge regarding different cultures' worldviews, the field of biocultural ecology, and the importance of addressing social determinants of health?"
D. "Do I have sacred and unremitting encounters with people from cultures different from mine, and am I committed to resolving cross-cultural conflicts?"
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "Am I aware of my prejudices and biases and the presence of racism and other ‘isms'?"
Step 1: The "E" in the "A-S-K-E-D" mnemonic stands for "Examine your biases and prejudices."
Step 2: Answer choice A directly addresses this aspect by asking, "Am I aware of my prejudices and biases and the presence of racism and other 'isms'?"
Step 3: This question prompts the nurse to reflect on their own potential biases and prejudices, which is crucial for providing culturally competent care.
Step 4: Therefore, answer choice A is the correct choice as it aligns with the specific aspect of self-examination related to addressing biases and prejudices.
Summary:
- Choice B focuses on conducting assessments in a culturally sensitive manner, not on examining biases.
- Choice C emphasizes knowledge about different cultures, not self-reflection on biases.
- Choice D talks about resolving conflicts and interacting with different cultures, but not specifically about examining biases and prejudices.
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Question 6
The nurse is concerned that a client with an alteration in perfusion is at risk for inadequate oxygenation. What should the nurse consider when planning for this client's potential health problem?
A. Encouraging ambulation every 30 minutes
B. Instructing on deep breathing
C. Administering medications appropriate to increase heart rate
D. Positioning to increase blood return
Correct answer:
When a client has an alteration in perfusion, particularly with inadequate oxygenation, positioning to increase blood return is essential in maintaining adequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. By positioning the client in a way that maximizes venous return to the heart, the nurse can optimize cardiac output and improve oxygen delivery to the tissues. This can include elevating the legs slightly to facilitate blood return from the lower extremities, ensuring proper alignment of the body to prevent compression of major vessels, and promoting proper body mechanics to reduce the workload on the heart. Encouraging ambulation, instructing on deep breathing, and administering medications to increase heart rate may all have their place in certain scenarios, but for a client at risk for inadequate oxygenation due to perfusion issues, positioning to optimize blood return is the most crucial consideration.
A public health nurse is involved in health care reform. Which of the following best explains why the nurse is involved in these efforts?
A. To promote the nursing profession
B. To increase funding for public health nursing
C. To address the concerns of nurses
D. To help improve health care access
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D, to help improve health care access. The public health nurse is involved in health care reform to advocate for policies and initiatives that aim to increase access to healthcare services for the population. By improving health care access, the nurse can help ensure that individuals receive timely and appropriate care, ultimately leading to better health outcomes.
A: Incorrect. Promoting the nursing profession is not the primary goal of a public health nurse involved in health care reform.
B: Incorrect. While funding is important, the main focus of the nurse's involvement is on improving access to healthcare services, not specifically on increasing funding for public health nursing.
C: Incorrect. While addressing the concerns of nurses is important, the primary reason for the nurse's involvement in health care reform is to improve health care access for the population.
Which of the following laws established programs for provision of health services for women and children and supported community-oriented nursing practice?
A. Early Periodic Screening and Developmental Testing (EPSDT) Initiative
B. Healthy People 2000 Initiative
C. Sheppard-Towner Act
D. State Child Health Improvement Act (SCHIP)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Sheppard-Towner Act. This law, enacted in 1921, established programs for providing health services to women and children, focusing on maternal and child health. It supported community-oriented nursing practice by funding public health nurses to provide services to underserved populations.
A) Early Periodic Screening and Developmental Testing (EPSDT) Initiative focuses on preventive and screening services for Medicaid-eligible children, not specifically for women and children.
B) Healthy People 2000 Initiative is a national health promotion and disease prevention agenda, not specifically focused on women and children.
D) State Child Health Improvement Act (SCHIP) expanded health insurance coverage for children in low-income families, but it did not establish programs for provision of health services for women and children or support community-oriented nursing practice.
What community health nursing action would best ensure long-term positive health outcomes in pregnant adolescents from low-income groups and their children?
A. Help adolescent mothers learn about body changes during pregnancy.
B. Develop programs that enable adolescent mothers to complete their education.
C. Offer courses in proper care of babies.
D. Monitor pregnant adolescents for early detection of problems in pregnancy.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because completing education can empower adolescent mothers to secure better job opportunities, higher income, and improved living conditions, leading to long-term positive health outcomes for themselves and their children. This choice addresses the root causes of health disparities in low-income groups by promoting education as a key factor in breaking the cycle of poverty and improving overall well-being.
A: Learning about body changes during pregnancy is important but does not address the broader social determinants of health that impact long-term outcomes.
C: Offering courses in proper baby care is beneficial but does not address the underlying issues of education and socioeconomic status.
D: Monitoring for pregnancy problems is crucial for immediate health concerns but does not address the long-term health and well-being of the adolescent mothers and their children.
RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from the national government to local government units. Which of the following is the major goal of devolution?
A. To strengthen local government units
B. To allow greater autonomy to local government units.
C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance
D. To make basic services more accessible to the people
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: To allow greater autonomy to local government units. Devolution aims to grant more power and decision-making authority to local government units, allowing them to govern more independently. This enhances their ability to address local needs efficiently.
A: To strengthen local government units - While devolution may contribute to strengthening local government units, the primary goal is to grant greater autonomy rather than just strengthen them.
C: To empower the people and promote their self-reliance - While empowering people and promoting self-reliance are important outcomes of devolution, the major goal is to grant autonomy to local government units.
D: To make basic services more accessible to the people - While making basic services more accessible is a positive outcome of devolution, the primary goal is to provide greater autonomy to local government units.
What was the primary purpose of the 1935 Social Security Act in the U.S.?
A. To establish the National Health Service
B. To provide a foundation for public health programs
C. To create the first national health insurance plan
D. To provide benefits for elderly, unemployed, and disabled individuals
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. The primary purpose of the 1935 Social Security Act was to provide benefits for elderly, unemployed, and disabled individuals. This act established a system of social insurance that included old-age pensions, unemployment insurance, and assistance for the disabled. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: To establish the National Health Service - This was not the primary purpose of the 1935 Social Security Act. The act focused more on economic security than on healthcare.
B: To provide a foundation for public health programs - While the act did contribute to the overall well-being of individuals, its main focus was on providing financial support to specific groups in need.
C: To create the first national health insurance plan - The act did not create a comprehensive national health insurance plan but rather focused on social insurance programs for specific groups.
Identify the formal organization of public health services from a global to local level.
A. Local public health departments protect the health of the citizens that live in their county, municipality, or township. In conjunction with the state public health department andthe Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, they conduct routine surveillance to help identify an increase in potential outbreaks
B. Once there is a disease outbreak, local health departments participate in the outbreak investigation in coordination withthe state public health department and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
C. Hospitals are licensed by state and federal agencies, not local health departments.
D. Local public health department in coordination with the state public health department and the Centers for DiseaseControl and Prevention implement and monitor quarantineefforts in the event of communicable disease outbreak that
Correct answer:
Step 1: Local public health departments protect the health of citizens in their jurisdiction.
Step 2: They work in conjunction with state health departments and the CDC for surveillance.
Step 3: This collaboration ensures early detection of potential outbreaks.
Step 4: The coordinated effort helps in implementing timely interventions.
Step 5: Hospitals are regulated by state and federal agencies, not local health departments.
Step 6: Quarantine efforts during outbreaks are implemented by the collaboration of local, state, and CDC.
Overall, choice A is correct as it accurately describes the formal organization of public health services from a global to local level, emphasizing the collaborative approach between local, state, and national health entities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fully capture the hierarchical structure and collaboration involved in public health services.
A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay?
A. Advice them on the sign of German Measles
B. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and moviehouses
C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given
D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin Answers and Rationale Gauge your performance by counter-checking your answers to those below. If you have disputes or further questions, please direct them to the comments section.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given. In the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial for women to consult with healthcare professionals to ensure they receive appropriate care and guidance. Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy, but receiving the vaccine postpartum can prevent future rubella infections. This advice is the best course of action to prevent congenital rubella.
A: Advising on the sign of German Measles is important, but it does not directly prevent congenital rubella in the first trimester.
B: Avoiding crowded places can help reduce the risk of exposure to infections, but it is not as effective as receiving the rubella vaccine.
D: Consulting a physician for rubella immunoglobulin is not the standard recommendation for prevention in the first trimester; the focus is on vaccination preconception or postpartum.
A client who is pregnant and from a Middle Eastern background expresses discomfort with receiving prenatal care from health care providers who are men. To provide culturally responsive care for the client, the nurse should:
A. Explain the importance of receiving care from health care providers who are men regardless of cultural preferences.
B. Schedule all prenatal appointments with health care providers who are women to accommodate the client's cultural preferences.
C. Disregard the client's concerns and continue to assign health care providers who are men for the
D. Discuss the client's concerns and work collaboratively with the client to find a solution that respects their cultural preferences.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because it promotes client-centered care and cultural competence. By discussing the client's concerns and collaborating to find a solution, the nurse respects the client's cultural preferences while also addressing their healthcare needs. This approach builds trust, enhances communication, and promotes positive health outcomes.
Choice A is incorrect because it disregards the client's cultural preferences, which may lead to the client feeling uncomfortable and potentially avoiding prenatal care.
Choice B is incorrect as it may not address the client's discomfort with male healthcare providers and could overlook the importance of addressing the client's concerns collaboratively.
Choice C is incorrect because it dismisses the client's concerns, which goes against providing culturally responsive care and may result in the client feeling unheard and disrespected.
What is addressed by the developmental assessment aspect of the Calgary Family Assessment Model (CFAM)?
A. Family life-cycle stages
B. Instrumental and expressive functions
C. Activities of everyday living
D. Family strengths
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A (Family life-cycle stages) because the developmental assessment aspect of the Calgary Family Assessment Model (CFAM) focuses on understanding where the family stands in terms of its life-cycle stages. This involves assessing the family's developmental stage, transitions, and tasks. It helps in identifying the family's current needs and challenges based on their stage of development.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because:
B: Instrumental and expressive functions refer to the functional aspects of the family system, not specifically related to developmental stages.
C: Activities of everyday living pertain to the family's day-to-day routines and functioning, not necessarily related to developmental stages.
D: Family strengths represent positive qualities and resources within the family but do not specifically address the developmental aspect of the family life cycle.
RN exams community health practice questions, set 27 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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