RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 129
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 129
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
To avoid a perineal tear the obstetrician cuts the perineum posteriorly before delivery. This process is called
A. Perineorrhaphy
B. Episiotomy
C. Cesarean section
D. Tubal ligation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Episiotomy
The correct answer is B: Episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening and prevent severe perineal tears. This procedure is performed to facilitate the delivery of the baby and reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Perineorrhaphy (A) is a surgical repair of a perineal tear or episiotomy after childbirth, not the procedure of making the incision. Cesarean section (C) is a surgical procedure to deliver a baby through an incision in the mother's abdomen and uterus, not related to perineal tears. Tubal ligation (D) is a permanent form of female sterilization by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy, not relevant to perineal tears during childbirth.
Question 2
To avoid a perineal tear the obstetrician cuts the perineum posteriorly before delivery. This process is called
A. Perineorrhaphy
B. Episiotomy
C. Cesarean section
D. Tubal ligation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Episiotomy
The correct answer is B: Episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening and prevent severe perineal tears. This procedure is performed to facilitate the delivery of the baby and reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Perineorrhaphy (A) is a surgical repair of a perineal tear or episiotomy after childbirth, not the procedure of making the incision. Cesarean section (C) is a surgical procedure to deliver a baby through an incision in the mother's abdomen and uterus, not related to perineal tears. Tubal ligation (D) is a permanent form of female sterilization by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy, not relevant to perineal tears during childbirth.
Question 3
A pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation reports severe heartburn. What should the nurse recommend to relieve symptoms?
A. Take over-the-counter antacids after every meal.
B. Eat smaller, more frequent meals and avoid lying down after eating.
C. Drink a large glass of water immediately after meals to dilute stomach acid.
D. Increase caffeine intake to speed up digestion.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Eat smaller, more frequent meals and avoid lying down after eating.
The correct answer is B: Eat smaller, more frequent meals and avoid lying down after eating. This recommendation helps prevent acid reflux by reducing the pressure on the stomach and ensuring that the stomach is not overly full. Eating smaller meals more frequently prevents the stomach from becoming too full, which can trigger heartburn. Avoiding lying down after eating helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking antacids after every meal can lead to excessive intake and potential side effects. Drinking water immediately after meals may exacerbate heartburn by diluting stomach acid further. Increasing caffeine intake can worsen heartburn symptoms due to its ability to relax the lower esophageal sphincter.
Question 4
Which of the following statements about mealtime is true?
A. Social interaction is an important part of mealtime.
B. Nursing assistants should do everything for residents during mealtime so residents will not be anxious.
C. Mealtime is a good time for nursing assistants to chat with colleagues since the residents are busy eating.
D. Nursing assistants should let residents know when their meal does not look appetizing.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Social interaction is an important part of mealtime.
Correct Answer: A: Social interaction is an important part of mealtime.
Rationale: Social interaction during mealtime promotes a sense of community and well-being among residents. It can enhance their overall dining experience and help combat feelings of loneliness or isolation. Engaging in conversations can also stimulate appetite and improve digestion.
Summary:
B: Incorrect. Residents should be encouraged to participate in mealtime activities to promote independence and autonomy.
C: Incorrect. Mealtime is primarily for residents to enjoy their meals, and nursing assistants should focus on providing care and assistance.
D: Incorrect. While it's important to address residents' concerns about their meals, it's not necessary to always point out unappetizing aspects.
Question 5
The nurse is preparing a postpartum client for discharge. Which instruction is most important?
A. Avoid breastfeeding if you feel tired.
B. Report foul-smelling lochia to your doctor.
C. Resume all physical activity immediately.
D. Stop taking your prenatal vitamins after discharge.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Report foul-smelling lochia to your doctor.
The correct answer is B: Report foul-smelling lochia to your doctor. This instruction is crucial because foul-smelling lochia can indicate an infection, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Reporting this to the doctor promptly ensures timely treatment.
A: Avoid breastfeeding if you feel tired - Incorrect. Breastfeeding is important for the baby's nutrition and bonding, regardless of the mother's fatigue.
C: Resume all physical activity immediately - Incorrect. Gradual resumption of physical activity is recommended to allow the body to heal properly.
D: Stop taking your prenatal vitamins after discharge - Incorrect. Prenatal vitamins are beneficial for postpartum recovery and breastfeeding, so stopping them abruptly is not advisable.
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Question 6
A 28 y.o. patient without permanent residence was admitted to the hospital with the preliminary diagnosis influenza. On the fith day of illness he got a maculopapular petechial rash on his body and internal surfaces of extremities. Body temperature is 410 C, euphoria, face hyperemia, sclera reddening, tongue tremor, tachycardia, splenomegaly, excitement. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Epidemic typhus
B. Delirium alcoholicum
C. Leptospirosis
D. Measles
Correct answer:
Step 1: Initial diagnosis of influenza suggests a viral illness.
Step 2: Presence of maculopapular petechial rash and high fever indicates a systemic infection.
Step 3: Symptoms like euphoria, hyperemia, tachycardia, splenomegaly, and excitement are characteristic of epidemic typhus.
Step 4: Face hyperemia, sclera reddening, and tongue tremor are specific to epidemic typhus.
Step 5: Epidemic typhus is transmitted by body lice, which fits the scenario of a patient without permanent residence.
Summary:
- Delirium alcoholicum is unlikely due to the specific symptoms and lack of history of alcohol abuse.
- Leptospirosis typically presents with jaundice and renal symptoms, not seen in this case.
- Measles rash is different from the maculopapular petechial rash described.
A nurse has taught the patient how to use crutches.The patient went up and down the stairs using crutches with no difficulties. Which information will the nurse use for the “I” in PIE charting?
A. Patient went up and down stairs
B. Demonstrated use of crutches
C. Used crutches with no difficulties
D. Deficient knowledge related to never using crutches
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: C - Used crutches with no difficulties
Rationale:
1. "Used crutches with no difficulties" reflects the patient's successful application of the taught skill.
2. This information indicates the patient's ability to independently perform the task.
3. It demonstrates the effectiveness of the teaching provided by the nurse.
4. "Used crutches with no difficulties" is a specific and objective observation of the patient's performance.
Summary:
A. "Patient went up and down stairs" is too general and does not indicate the patient's proficiency.
B. "Demonstrated use of crutches" does not confirm the patient's actual performance.
D. "Deficient knowledge related to never using crutches" is incorrect as it does not reflect the patient's successful use of crutches.
Which of the following actions most likely mediated the reduction in the patient's tremor?
A. Inhibition of levodopa metabolism in the striatum
B. Inhibition of the abnormally high cholinergic tone in the striatum
C. Activation of dopaminergic receptors in the striatum
D. Blockade of β adrenoceptors in skeletal muscle
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because inhibiting the abnormally high cholinergic tone in the striatum can help reduce tremors. The striatum plays a key role in motor control, and an imbalance between cholinergic and dopaminergic signaling can lead to tremors. By inhibiting the excessive cholinergic activity, the balance is restored, resulting in reduced tremor.
A: Inhibition of levodopa metabolism in the striatum wouldn't directly affect tremors as levodopa is a precursor to dopamine.
C: Activation of dopaminergic receptors in the striatum may help with motor control but wouldn't specifically address the cholinergic imbalance causing tremors.
D: Blockade of β adrenoceptors in skeletal muscle is unrelated to the striatum and cholinergic signaling involved in tremors.
A patient in labor is requesting pain relief. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient in the latent phase of labor?
A. Administer an epidural block
B. Provide non-pharmacological pain relief methods
C. Administer narcotic analgesics
D. Encourage the patient to push with each contraction
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Provide non-pharmacological pain relief methods. In the latent phase of labor, the cervix is dilated up to 6 cm and the contractions are typically mild to moderate. Non-pharmacological methods like massage, breathing techniques, warm showers, and position changes are most appropriate as they help the patient relax and cope with the pain without interfering with the progress of labor. Administering an epidural block (A) is not recommended in the latent phase as it can slow down labor. Administering narcotic analgesics (C) can affect the baby and may not provide adequate pain relief. Encouraging the patient to push (D) is not appropriate in the latent phase as it can lead to exhaustion and may not be effective until the cervix is fully dilated.
Which foods help improve body defenses and potentially prevent diseases?
A. Broccoli, oranges, dark greens
B. Cure many diseases
C. Supplement vitamin pills
D. Balance body molecules
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because broccoli, oranges, and dark greens are rich in essential nutrients like vitamin C, antioxidants, and phytochemicals that boost the immune system and help prevent diseases. Broccoli contains sulforaphane, which has been shown to have anti-cancer properties. Oranges are high in vitamin C, crucial for immune function. Dark greens like spinach and kale are packed with vitamins and minerals that support overall health.
Choice B is incorrect because no single food can cure many diseases. Choice C is incorrect because relying solely on vitamin pills may not provide all the necessary nutrients and benefits of whole foods. Choice D is incorrect as there is no scientific evidence supporting the concept of balancing body molecules through food.
A nurse in the clinic has a full appointment schedule. A Hispanic American patient arrives at 1230 for a 1000 appointment. A Native American patient does not keep an appointment at all. What understanding will improve the nurse's planning? These patients are
A. members of cultural groups that have a different view of time.
B. immature and irresponsible in health care matters.
C. acting-out feelings of anger toward the system.
D. displaying passive-aggressive tendencies.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: members of cultural groups that have a different view of time. Hispanic American and Native American cultures may have different perceptions of punctuality and time management. Hispanic American cultures may prioritize relationships over strict adherence to schedules. Native American cultures may have a more fluid concept of time. It is important for the nurse to understand and respect these cultural differences to provide effective care.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about the patients' behaviors based on stereotypes or psychological theories that are not relevant to the situation. It is crucial to avoid making unfounded judgments and instead focus on cultural competence when providing healthcare services.
A patient in labor is requesting pain relief. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient in the latent phase of labor?
A. Administer an epidural block
B. Provide non-pharmacological pain relief methods
C. Administer narcotic analgesics
D. Encourage the patient to push with each contraction
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Provide non-pharmacological pain relief methods. In the latent phase of labor, the cervix is dilated up to 6 cm and the contractions are typically mild to moderate. Non-pharmacological methods like massage, breathing techniques, warm showers, and position changes are most appropriate as they help the patient relax and cope with the pain without interfering with the progress of labor. Administering an epidural block (A) is not recommended in the latent phase as it can slow down labor. Administering narcotic analgesics (C) can affect the baby and may not provide adequate pain relief. Encouraging the patient to push (D) is not appropriate in the latent phase as it can lead to exhaustion and may not be effective until the cervix is fully dilated.
Which of the following should the nursing assistant do when working with a resident who has a visual impairment?
A. The NA should encourage the resident to use his other senses such as smell and hearing.
B. The NA should shout at the resident upon entering the room to announce her arrival.
C. The NA should lower the room lighting to make the room more inviting to the resident.
D. The NA should change the location of familiar objects in the resident's room to keep him mentally active.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. Encouraging the resident to use other senses like smell and hearing can help compensate for the visual impairment and improve their quality of life. This approach promotes independence and enhances the resident's ability to navigate their environment.
Choice B is incorrect because shouting can be alarming and disorienting for someone with a visual impairment, and it does not support effective communication.
Choice C is incorrect because lowering room lighting may not be helpful for a visually impaired resident as they may still require adequate lighting to see objects clearly.
Choice D is incorrect because changing the location of familiar objects can be confusing and distressing for the resident, rather than keeping them mentally active.
Your 30 year old female patient is c/o bad-smelling vaginal discharge with mild itching for about 3 weeks. Douching did not help. Denies painful urination or intercourse. She noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. There are no lesions on the perineum. No lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination, there is a thin gray-white discharge. The pH of the discharge is over 4.5 and there is a fishy odor when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is applied to the vaginal secretions on the slide. Wet prep shows epithelial cells with stippled border (clue cells). What type of vaginitis best describes the findings?
A. Trichomonas vaginitis
B. Candida vaginitis
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Atrophic vaginitis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Bacterial vaginosis. The key findings in this scenario point towards bacterial vaginosis. The presence of thin gray-white discharge, fishy odor with KOH, pH over 4.5, and clue cells on wet prep are classic for bacterial vaginosis. Trichomonas vaginitis (choice A) typically presents with yellow-green frothy discharge and motile trichomonads on microscopy. Candida vaginitis (choice B) is characterized by thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge and budding yeast or pseudohyphae on microscopy. Atrophic vaginitis (choice D) usually occurs in menopausal women due to estrogen deficiency and presents with thin, pale vaginal walls and vaginal dryness. In this case, the absence of these findings makes bacterial vaginosis the most likely diagnosis.
What is a benefit of regular activity and exercise for the respiratory system?
A. An increased chance of infection
B. A reduced chance of pneumonia
C. Diminished oxygen level
D. Decreased circulation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: A reduced chance of pneumonia. Regular activity and exercise strengthen the respiratory muscles, improve lung function, and enhance overall respiratory health. This reduces the risk of infections such as pneumonia by improving the body's ability to fight off respiratory illnesses.
Incorrect choices:
A: An increased chance of infection - This is incorrect as regular activity and exercise actually boost the immune system, reducing the likelihood of infections.
C: Diminished oxygen level - This is incorrect as exercise increases oxygen intake and improves oxygen delivery to the body's tissues.
D: Decreased circulation - This is incorrect as exercise improves circulation, leading to better oxygen and nutrient delivery throughout the body.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 129 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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