You pick airway, oxygen, and breathing actions in the order a nurse actually moves. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five respiratory questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
In the presence of active surfactants, all of the following are expected to decrease EXCEPT?
A. Tendency of the lung to collapse
B. Lung compliance
C. Surface tension forces in the alveoli
D. Lymph flow in the lung
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Lung compliance
Surfactant, a phospholipid-protein mix from type II alveolar cells, lowers surface tension in alveoli, stabilizing them against collapse. Normally, high surface tension from water (72 dynes/cm) pulls alveoli inward, but surfactant reduces this (to ~5-10 dynes/cm), decreasing the tendency to collapse per Laplace's law (P = 2T/r). It also reduces surface tension forces directly, easing lung expansion. Lower tension decreases lymph flow by reducing fluid shifts into the interstitium from high alveolar pressures. However, lung compliance the ease of expansion increases with surfactant, as lower tension makes lungs less stiff, requiring less pressure for a given volume (C = ΔV / ΔP). Thus, compliance rises, not falls, making it the exception. This increase is vital in neonates and prevents atelectasis, contrasting with the other factors, which diminish as surfactant stabilizes alveoli and reduces mechanical stress, a key adaptation for efficient breathing.
Question 2
An adolescent client with several flu symptoms calls the advice nurse to ask about using cough suppressants. What suggestion from the nurse would promote better airway clearance?
A. Use cough suppressants in the morning
B. Use cough suppressants during the night
C. Use cough suppressants in the evening
D. Use cough suppressants in the afternoon
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Use cough suppressants during the night
Cough suppressants are medications that reduce the cough reflex, which can be helpful for sleep but may hinder airway clearance during the day when the body needs to expel mucus. For an adolescent with flu symptoms, promoting airway clearance is critical to prevent mucus buildup, which could lead to complications like pneumonia. Using cough suppressants at night allows the client to rest while still enabling productive coughing during the day to clear the airways. Morning, evening, or afternoon use could suppress coughing when it's most needed to expel mucus, especially since flu often involves increased respiratory secretions. The nurse's focus is on balancing symptom relief with the body's natural defense mechanisms, and nighttime use aligns with this goal by prioritizing rest without fully inhibiting airway clearance throughout the day. This approach supports recovery by ensuring mucus is cleared effectively while minimizing discomfort during sleep.
Question 3
A patient with restrictive lung disease will have a relatively normal?
A. FEV1
B. FVC
C. V/Q ratio
D. FEV1/FVC
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — FEV1/FVC
Restrictive lung diseases (e.g., pulmonary fibrosis) stiffen lungs, reducing expansion and volumes like forced vital capacity (FVC), which drops below normal (e.g., from 4-5 L to 2-3 L) due to limited inspiratory capacity. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) also decreases proportionally (e.g., from 3-4 L to 1.5-2 L), as less air is available to exhale. However, the FEV1/FVC ratio remains normal or elevated (≥80%) because both values decline similarly, unlike obstructive diseases where FEV1 falls more, lowering the ratio (<70%). Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio may skew high in restrictive disease (e.g., fibrosis) due to reduced ventilation from stiff lungs, not normal matching. FEV1 and FVC individually are reduced, not normal. The FEV1/FVC ratio's preservation reflects the restrictive pattern impaired volume, not airflow obstruction making it the value least altered relative to healthy norms, a key diagnostic feature in spirometry.
Question 4
Which of the following structures contains blood with the highest PCO2?
A. Carotid bodies
B. Pulmonary veins
C. Superior vena cava
D. The midportion of pulmonary capillaries
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Superior vena cava
PCO2, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide, indicates CO2 concentration in blood, highest where metabolic waste accumulates before gas exchange. The superior vena cava (SVC) carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium, with a PCO2 of ~45-46 mmHg venous blood rich in CO2 from tissue metabolism, making it the highest here. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood post-alveolar exchange, with PCO2 lowered to arterial levels (~40 mmHg). Midportion pulmonary capillaries are transitional, where PCO2 drops from venous (~46 mmHg) to arterial (~40 mmHg) during gas exchange, averaging less than SVC. Carotid bodies, chemoreceptors sensing arterial blood (PCO2 ~40 mmHg), aren't blood reservoirs. SVC's role in collecting systemic venous return ensures it carries the most CO2-rich blood before pulmonary offloading, distinguishing it from oxygenated or exchanging sites, reflecting the circulatory path where CO2 peaks prior to exhalation.
Question 5
Which of the following structures contains blood with the highest PCO2?
A. Carotid bodies
B. Pulmonary veins
C. Superior vena cava
D. The midportion of pulmonary capillaries
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Superior vena cava
PCO2, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide, indicates CO2 concentration in blood, highest where metabolic waste accumulates before gas exchange. The superior vena cava (SVC) carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium, with a PCO2 of ~45-46 mmHg venous blood rich in CO2 from tissue metabolism, making it the highest here. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood post-alveolar exchange, with PCO2 lowered to arterial levels (~40 mmHg). Midportion pulmonary capillaries are transitional, where PCO2 drops from venous (~46 mmHg) to arterial (~40 mmHg) during gas exchange, averaging less than SVC. Carotid bodies, chemoreceptors sensing arterial blood (PCO2 ~40 mmHg), aren't blood reservoirs. SVC's role in collecting systemic venous return ensures it carries the most CO2-rich blood before pulmonary offloading, distinguishing it from oxygenated or exchanging sites, reflecting the circulatory path where CO2 peaks prior to exhalation.
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Question 6
Assuming a normal anatomic dead space of 150 ml and a fixed respiratory minute ventilation of 6 L/min. Which combination of respiratory rate and tidal volume will give the largest alveolar ventilation?
A. 200 ml at 30 breaths/min
B. 300 ml at 20 breaths/min
C. 400 ml at 15 breaths/min
D. 600 ml at 10 breaths/min
Correct answer:
Respiratory minute ventilation (VE) is tidal volume (VT) × respiratory rate (RR), fixed here at 6 L/min (6000 ml/min). Alveolar ventilation (VA) is the air reaching alveoli for gas exchange: VA = (VT - VD) × RR, where anatomic dead space (VD) is 150 ml. For 200 ml at 30/min: VE = 200 × 30 = 6000 ml/min, VA = (200 - 150) × 30 = 50 × 30 = 1500 ml/min. For 300 ml at 20/min: VE = 300 × 20 = 6000 ml/min, VA = (300 - 150) × 20 = 150 × 20 = 3000 ml/min. For 400 ml at 15/min: VE = 400 × 15 = 6000 ml/min, VA = (400 - 150) × 15 = 250 × 15 = 3750 ml/min. For 600 ml at 10/min: VE = 600 × 10 = 6000 ml/min, VA = (600 - 150) × 10 = 450 × 10 = 4500 ml/min. The 600 ml at 10/min yields the highest VA (4.5 L/min), as larger VT maximizes air past the fixed VD, despite lower RR. Higher rates with smaller VT waste more ventilation in dead space, reducing VA efficiency, making the deeper, slower pattern optimal.
A patient with restrictive lung disease will have a relatively normal?
A. FEV1
B. FVC
C. V/Q ratio
D. FEV1/FVC
Correct answer:
Restrictive lung diseases (e.g., pulmonary fibrosis) stiffen lungs, reducing expansion and volumes like forced vital capacity (FVC), which drops below normal (e.g., from 4-5 L to 2-3 L) due to limited inspiratory capacity. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) also decreases proportionally (e.g., from 3-4 L to 1.5-2 L), as less air is available to exhale. However, the FEV1/FVC ratio remains normal or elevated (≥80%) because both values decline similarly, unlike obstructive diseases where FEV1 falls more, lowering the ratio (<70%). Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio may skew high in restrictive disease (e.g., fibrosis) due to reduced ventilation from stiff lungs, not normal matching. FEV1 and FVC individually are reduced, not normal. The FEV1/FVC ratio's preservation reflects the restrictive pattern impaired volume, not airflow obstruction making it the value least altered relative to healthy norms, a key diagnostic feature in spirometry.
The clinic nurse is preparing to give an antiviral drug to an older client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and sickle cell disease. Which ordered medication would cause the nurse to notify the prescriber?
A. Oseltamivir
B. Xanax
C. Zanamivir
D. Tamiflu
Correct answer:
Zanamivir is an inhaled antiviral used for influenza but is contraindicated in clients with COPD because it can cause bronchospasm, worsening airway obstruction and potentially leading to respiratory distress. For an older client with COPD and sickle cell disease, this risk is amplified, as both conditions compromise oxygen delivery COPD via lung function and sickle cell via reduced blood oxygenation. Oseltamivir (also known as Tamiflu) is an oral antiviral safe for such clients, making it a better choice. Xanax, an anti-anxiety drug, isn't an antiviral and is irrelevant here. The nurse must notify the prescriber about Zanamivir due to its potential to exacerbate the client's respiratory condition, requiring an alternative like Oseltamivir. This decision reflects the nurse's duty to assess medication appropriateness based on the client's comorbidities, preventing harm and ensuring treatment aligns with the client's fragile health status.
The clinic nurse is preparing to give an antiviral drug to an older client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and sickle cell disease. Which ordered medication would cause the nurse to notify the prescriber?
A. Oseltamivir
B. Xanax
C. Zanamivir
D. Tamiflu
Correct answer:
Zanamivir is an inhaled antiviral used for influenza but is contraindicated in clients with COPD because it can cause bronchospasm, worsening airway obstruction and potentially leading to respiratory distress. For an older client with COPD and sickle cell disease, this risk is amplified, as both conditions compromise oxygen delivery COPD via lung function and sickle cell via reduced blood oxygenation. Oseltamivir (also known as Tamiflu) is an oral antiviral safe for such clients, making it a better choice. Xanax, an anti-anxiety drug, isn't an antiviral and is irrelevant here. The nurse must notify the prescriber about Zanamivir due to its potential to exacerbate the client's respiratory condition, requiring an alternative like Oseltamivir. This decision reflects the nurse's duty to assess medication appropriateness based on the client's comorbidities, preventing harm and ensuring treatment aligns with the client's fragile health status.
An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in a(n):
A. decrease in the rate of breathing.
B. increase of the respiratory rate.
C. decrease of pulmonary ventilation.
D. decrease of the alveolar ventilation rate.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: an increase of the respiratory rate. When carbon dioxide levels rise in the blood, it triggers the body to increase the rate of breathing to eliminate excess carbon dioxide through exhalation. This is known as the respiratory drive, controlled by the respiratory centers in the brainstem. Increasing the respiratory rate helps to restore the balance of gases in the blood.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Decrease in the rate of breathing - This is incorrect because high levels of carbon dioxide would stimulate an increase in breathing rate, not a decrease.
C: Decrease of pulmonary ventilation - This is incorrect as an increase in carbon dioxide would typically lead to an increase, not a decrease, in pulmonary ventilation.
D: Decrease of the alveolar ventilation rate - This is incorrect because an increase in carbon dioxide would prompt an increase in alveolar ventilation to remove excess carbon dioxide from the blood.
Regarding Pneumothorax, one of the following isn't true?
A. Diameter of the thorax increases
B. Venous return decreases
C. Vital capacity (VC) decreases
D. Lung compliance increases
Correct answer:
Pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space, disrupting negative intrapleural pressure (~-4 mmHg), causing lung collapse and chest wall expansion. The thorax's diameter increases as the chest wall springs outward due to its elastic recoil. Venous return decreases because positive pleural pressure compresses the vena cava, reducing preload, especially in tension pneumothorax. Vital capacity (VC) drops as the collapsed lung reduces expirable volume (e.g., from 4-5 L to much less). However, lung compliance (C = ÃŽâ€V / ÃŽâ€P) doesn't increase it's a lung property (stiffness), not directly altered by pneumothorax. The collapsed lung's volume change per pressure is irrelevant, as it's deflated; compliance may appear effectively zero, but the lung tissue itself isn't more compliant. Increased compliance misrepresents pneumothorax's mechanics, where the issue is pressure loss, not lung elasticity, making this the untrue statement.
When COâ‚‚ diffuses into blood in systemic capillaries most of it:
A. Remains in solution as COâ‚‚
B. Converts to carbamino compounds
C. Converts to bicarbonate ions in RBC
D. Combines with Hb directly
Correct answer:
Most COâ‚‚ diffusing into blood in systemic capillaries converts to bicarbonate ions in red blood cells (RBCs), making choice C correct. Only about 5-10% remains dissolved as COâ‚‚ (choice A) due to low solubility. Around 20-25% forms carbamino compounds (choice B) by binding to hemoglobin's amino groups, but this is less dominant. The majority (65-70%) enters RBCs, where carbonic anhydrase catalyzes its reaction with Hâ‚‚O to form carbonic acid (Hâ‚‚CO₃), which dissociates into H⺠and HCO₃â» (bicarbonate). ' COâ‚‚ doesn't combine directly with hemoglobin significantly carbamino formation is specific. Choice E occurs minimally in plasma (slow without enzyme) compared to RBCs. Bicarbonate then exits RBCs via the chloride shift, maintaining pH balance. This process's efficiency in RBCs, driven by enzymatic speed and volume, ensures C is the primary fate of COâ‚‚ in systemic capillaries.
A client asks the nurse if the body possesses any natural defenses against influenza. What information about natural defenses should the nurse provide to the client?
A. Viscous mucus secretions and local immunologic defenses that produce a local inflammatory response
B. Vasodilation of the nasal mucosa and hypothalamic response that lowers body temperature to inactivate the virus
C. Release of antihistamine substances to limit nasal congestion and increased catecholamines
D. Increased cough reflex and inhibition of antidiuretic hormone to help thin secretions
Correct answer:
The body's natural defenses against influenza include viscous mucus secretions in the respiratory tract that trap viral particles, preventing deeper penetration, and local immunologic defenses like antibodies and inflammatory responses that neutralize the virus at entry points. This inflammation, triggered by immune cells, fights infection but causes symptoms like swelling or fever. Vasodilation occurs, but lowering body temperature isn't a defense fever actually helps combat viruses. Antihistamines aren't naturally released; they're medications, and catecholamines boost alertness, not immunity. Coughing clears mucus, but antidiuretic hormone inhibition isn't a flu defense it relates to fluid balance. The nurse explains mucus and local immunity as key barriers, educating the client on how the body resists influenza naturally before adaptive immunity fully activates, emphasizing their role in limiting viral spread and aiding recovery.
A nurse is speaking with a client who recently completed chemotherapy and radiation for breast cancer diagnosed 11 months prior. The woman asks about the wisdom of getting an influenza vaccine so soon after completing treatment. What statements by the nurse are accurate responses to the client's question? (Select all that apply.)
A. Since the influenza vaccine will likely cause you to get influenza, it's not a good idea to get the vaccine this year.
B. Influenza infection is a modifiable risk factor; this means your risk of becoming ill with the virus can be lowered by getting the flu vaccine.
C. Those with compromised immune systems should only get the inactivated form of the virus using the shot, NOT the attenuated virus in the nasal spray.
D. People with weakened immune systems are more susceptible to infections and to becoming more ill when infected. Thus, getting vaccinated is wise.
Correct answer:
For a client post-chemotherapy and radiation, the nurse advises that those with weakened immune systems, like her, are more susceptible to infections and severe flu outcomes, making vaccination wise with the inactivated shot, not the live nasal spray. Chemotherapy suppresses immunity, increasing flu risk even months later, and the inactivated vaccine safely boosts protection without infection risk. Saying the vaccine causes flu is false it's inactivated, not live, in the shot form recommended here. Influenza is indeed modifiable vaccination lowers risk, a key point for this vulnerable client. The nasal spray's live virus is contraindicated post-chemo due to immune compromise, but the shot is safe and effective. The nurse's accurate advice emphasizes vaccination's protective role, tailored to her condition, preventing severe illness in someone still recovering immunity, aligning with CDC guidelines for immunocompromised individuals.
A nurse is speaking with a client who recently completed chemotherapy and radiation for breast cancer diagnosed 11 months prior. The woman asks about the wisdom of getting an influenza vaccine so soon after completing treatment. What statements by the nurse are accurate responses to the client's question? (Select all that apply.)
A. Since the influenza vaccine will likely cause you to get influenza, it's not a good idea to get the vaccine this year.
B. Influenza infection is a modifiable risk factor; this means your risk of becoming ill with the virus can be lowered by getting the flu vaccine.
C. Those with compromised immune systems should only get the inactivated form of the virus using the shot, NOT the attenuated virus in the nasal spray.
D. People with weakened immune systems are more susceptible to infections and to becoming more ill when infected. Thus, getting vaccinated is wise.
Correct answer:
For a client post-chemotherapy and radiation, the nurse advises that those with weakened immune systems, like her, are more susceptible to infections and severe flu outcomes, making vaccination wise with the inactivated shot, not the live nasal spray. Chemotherapy suppresses immunity, increasing flu risk even months later, and the inactivated vaccine safely boosts protection without infection risk. Saying the vaccine causes flu is false it's inactivated, not live, in the shot form recommended here. Influenza is indeed modifiable vaccination lowers risk, a key point for this vulnerable client. The nasal spray's live virus is contraindicated post-chemo due to immune compromise, but the shot is safe and effective. The nurse's accurate advice emphasizes vaccination's protective role, tailored to her condition, preventing severe illness in someone still recovering immunity, aligning with CDC guidelines for immunocompromised individuals.
LPN exams respiratory practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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