LPN exams management of care practice questions, set 5
LPN exams · management of care
LPN exams management of care practice questionsset 5
You decide who to see first, what to delegate, and which order cannot wait. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five management of care questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the Quality Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her strategies to realize the goals and objectives of the department. Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform to have an effective control system?
A. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses
B. Identify the values of the department
C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria
D. Measure actual performances
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Identify the values of the department
The correct answer is B: Identify the values of the department. This is a primary task for an effective control system because values help guide decision-making and behavior within an organization. By identifying the values of the department, Ms. Valencia can ensure that all activities and strategies align with these values, promoting consistency and cohesiveness in achieving the goals and objectives of the Performance Improvement Department.
Explanation of other choices:
A: Making an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses is important but not a primary task for establishing an effective control system.
C: Identifying structure, process, outcome standards & criteria is important for monitoring and evaluating performance, but it is not the primary task needed for establishing control.
D: Measuring actual performances is a crucial aspect of control, but it is not the primary task that should be performed initially to establish an effective control system.
Question 2
A charge nurse is assessing staff knowledge about safety procedures regarding needle-stick injuries. Which of the following statements by a nurse indicates appropriate understanding of these safety procedures?
A. Prophylactic treatment should be initiated after a needle-stick during preparation of an injection
B. The needle should be recapped to prevent injury during transport to the biohazard container
C. I should stop the bleeding as soon as possible following a needle-stick injury
D. An incident report should be completed if a client receives a stick from her own used needle
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — I should stop the bleeding as soon as possible following a needle-stick injury
The correct answer is C: "I should stop the bleeding as soon as possible following a needle-stick injury." This statement indicates appropriate understanding because stopping the bleeding is the first step in managing a needle-stick injury to prevent further contamination and infection. It is crucial to control the bleeding promptly to reduce the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
Choice A is incorrect because prophylactic treatment should be initiated after a needle-stick exposure, not during preparation of an injection. Choice B is incorrect as recapping needles increases the risk of needle-stick injuries and should be avoided. Choice D is incorrect because an incident report should be completed if a healthcare worker, not a client, receives a needle-stick injury.
In summary, understanding the importance of stopping the bleeding promptly after a needle-stick injury is crucial for preventing further complications, making choice C the correct answer.
Question 3
Which nonpharmacological technique involves the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms?
A. Meditation
B. Visualization
C. Biofeedback
D. Chiropractic
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Biofeedback
The correct answer is C: Biofeedback. Biofeedback is a nonpharmacological technique that uses electronic monitoring equipment to provide real-time data on physiological processes such as heart rate, muscle tension, and skin temperature. Through this feedback, patients learn to control and regulate these bodily functions voluntarily.
Choice A, Meditation, involves focusing the mind and reducing stress through techniques like mindfulness or deep breathing, but it does not specifically rely on electronic monitoring equipment. Choice B, Visualization, is a technique where individuals imagine peaceful scenes to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety, and it also does not involve electronic monitoring. Choice D, Chiropractic, is a healthcare profession that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders through manual adjustments and manipulation, which is unrelated to the use of electronic monitoring equipment for controlling bodily functions.
Question 4
A group of providers is participating in a resuscitation effort for a client who is in cardiac arrest. Which of the following types of leadership is required for this group to function most efficiently?
A. Democratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Autocratic
D. Transformational
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Autocratic
In a cardiac arrest scenario, rapid decision-making and clear direction are essential for the team to function efficiently and save the client's life. Autocratic leadership, where one leader issues commands and directs the team without seeking input, is most effective in emergencies. This style ensures immediate action, minimizes confusion, and coordinates the complex, time-sensitive tasks of resuscitation, such as CPR, defibrillation, and medication administration. Democratic leadership, which involves group input, is too slow for such a high-stakes situation, while laissez-faire leadership, with minimal guidance, could lead to chaos and delays. Transformational leadership, focused on inspiration and long-term goals, is better suited for non-emergent settings. The autocratic approach provides the structure and authority needed to manage a crisis, ensuring each team member knows their role and acts swiftly, which is critical when seconds determine the outcome.
Question 5
The manager at a long-term care facility has intervened in a conflict between two staff members about the timing and length of lunch and coffee breaks. What management function is this manager demonstrating?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Evaluating
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Directing
The correct answer is C: Directing. In this scenario, the manager is intervening in a conflict between two staff members, which falls under the directing function of management. Directing involves giving instructions, guiding, and supervising employees to achieve organizational goals. The manager is providing guidance on how the staff should behave regarding lunch and coffee breaks, which aligns with the directing function.
Summary of other choices:
A: Planning - Planning involves setting goals and determining the actions needed to achieve them. This choice does not directly apply to the situation described.
B: Organizing - Organizing involves arranging resources and tasks to achieve organizational objectives. This choice does not directly relate to resolving conflicts between staff members.
D: Evaluating - Evaluating involves assessing performance and progress toward goals. This choice does not align with the manager's intervention in a conflict situation.
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Question 6
The nurse has just admitted a client to the emergency department for evaluation of a possible myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic intervention, by the nurse, would be priority?
A. Echocardiogram
B. Cardiac catheterization
C. Cardiac enzymes
D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Electrocardiogram (ECG). The priority in evaluating a possible MI is to assess for immediate signs of cardiac damage, which can be quickly detected through an ECG. An ECG provides immediate information on the heart's electrical activity and can identify changes indicative of an MI. This rapid diagnostic tool helps determine the urgency of treatment and guides further interventions.
Choice A: Echocardiogram - While echocardiogram is useful for assessing heart function, it is not the first-line diagnostic test for an acute MI due to time constraints.
Choice B: Cardiac catheterization - Cardiac catheterization is an invasive procedure used for definitive diagnosis and treatment but is not the initial priority in the emergency department.
Choice C: Cardiac enzymes - Cardiac enzymes are important for confirming an MI diagnosis, but they require time to elevate in the blood. ECG provides more immediate information for prompt intervention.
A healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is to receive an antibiotic drug that causes severe skin damage when infiltrated. The order reads 'Infuse over one hour by port-a-cath.' When the healthcare provider assesses the personal digital assistant that lists the steps to access a port-a-cath, which type of computer software is being used?
A. Data management
B. Electronic health records
C. Point-of-care technology
D. Telehealth
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Point-of-care technology. Point-of-care technology is used at the bedside to access information quickly for immediate patient care, such as procedures like accessing a port-a-cath. In this scenario, the healthcare provider is using a personal digital assistant to follow steps for accessing the port-a-cath, which is a point-of-care technology.
A: Data management software focuses on organizing and storing data, not specifically on accessing information at the bedside.
B: Electronic health records (EHR) are used for documenting patient information and medical history, not for accessing procedural steps in real-time at the bedside.
D: Telehealth involves using technology for remote healthcare services, not for accessing procedural information at the bedside.
In summary, the other choices are incorrect because they do not directly relate to accessing information at the bedside for immediate patient care, unlike point-of-care technology.
A nurse is having difficulty completing care and documentation without staying past the end of the shift. The nurse manager suggests focusing on time-management skills. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use?
A. Complete documentation at the end of the shift
B. Identify tasks in order of their priority
C. Delegate all tasks to assistive personnel
D. Avoid taking breaks to save time
Correct answer:
Effective time management is crucial for nurses to complete their responsibilities within a shift. Identifying tasks in order of priority allows the nurse to focus on the most critical client needs first, ensuring safety and quality care while optimizing workflow. This strategy aligns with nursing principles like the ABC (airway, breathing, circulation) framework or Maslow's hierarchy, which guide prioritization based on urgency and importance. Completing documentation at shift's end risks inaccuracies due to memory lapse and delays handoff, while delegating all tasks is impractical and exceeds the scope of assistive personnel, potentially compromising care. Avoiding breaks can lead to fatigue, reducing efficiency and increasing errors. Prioritizing tasks enables the nurse to allocate time effectively, address high-priority issues promptly, and complete documentation contemporaneously, reducing the need to stay late while maintaining professional standards.
A nurse is preparing a shift assignment for assistive personnel (AP) on the unit. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to the AP?
A. Administer the initial bolus feeding to a client who has an NG tube
B. Instruct a client to splint an abdominal incision
C. Check a client's pain level 30 min after receiving acetaminophen
D. Collect a urine specimen from a newly admitted client
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Collect a urine specimen from a newly admitted client. This task is appropriate for an assistive personnel (AP) as it is within their scope of practice and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or skills. Collecting a urine specimen is a routine and non-invasive task that can be safely delegated to APs. It helps in monitoring the client's health status and aids in diagnosing any potential issues.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Administering an initial bolus feeding to a client with an NG tube requires specialized training and knowledge to ensure proper technique and safety.
B: Instructing a client to splint an abdominal incision involves clinical judgment and assessment, which should be performed by a licensed nurse.
C: Checking a client's pain level after receiving acetaminophen requires critical thinking to assess the effectiveness of the medication and potential side effects, which is beyond the scope of an AP.
Which statement is true regarding an economic man style manager?
A. The manager may lack complete knowledge and generate few alternatives.
B. The manager makes decisions that may not be ideal but result in solutions that have an adequate outcome.
C. The manager is primarily motivated by his or her own financial gain.
D. The manager gathers as much information as possible and produces many alternatives.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because an economic man style manager is based on the assumption that individuals act rationally by maximizing their own self-interest. This means the manager may not have complete knowledge and may generate few alternatives due to the focus on optimizing personal gains.
Choice B is incorrect because it suggests the manager's decisions result in adequate outcomes, which may not always be the case for an economic man style manager who prioritizes personal gain over optimal solutions.
Choice C is incorrect as it focuses solely on financial gain, which is not the defining characteristic of an economic man style manager. They are driven by self-interest, but not necessarily only for financial reasons.
Choice D is incorrect because an economic man style manager may not gather as much information or produce many alternatives, as the focus is on maximizing personal benefits rather than exhaustive analysis and decision-making processes.
The nurse is applying the traditional problem-solving model when mediating in a conflict between two colleagues. When applying this model, the nurse should prioritize what task?
A. Identifying the root cause of the conflict
B. Implementing a solution as quickly as possible
C. Eliciting input from other nurses
D. Encouraging each nurse to reflect on his or her actions
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Identifying the root cause of the conflict. In the traditional problem-solving model, it is essential to identify the underlying issues causing the conflict before implementing any solutions. By understanding the root cause, the nurse can address the fundamental problem and prevent future conflicts. This step ensures a more effective and long-lasting resolution.
Summary of other choices:
B: Implementing a solution as quickly as possible - This is incorrect because rushing to implement a solution without understanding the root cause may lead to temporary fixes or exacerbate the conflict.
C: Eliciting input from other nurses - While input from others can be valuable, it should come after identifying the root cause to avoid distractions from the main issue.
D: Encouraging each nurse to reflect on his or her actions - Self-reflection is important but should follow identifying the root cause to facilitate a more insightful analysis.
A charge nurse is educating a group of newly licensed nurses about the case management approach to client care. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the responsibilities of a nurse in case management?
A. Each nurse completes one specific task for a group of clients
B. Nurses use critical pathways when caring for clients
C. Nurses who have advanced training provide direct care for select clients
D. Nurses delegate and supervise assigned tasks
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: B - Nurses use critical pathways when caring for clients.
Rationale: Critical pathways are a core component of case management, providing a structured plan for client care. Nurses follow these pathways to ensure timely and effective interventions, promoting optimal outcomes. This statement indicates an understanding of the systematic and collaborative approach in case management.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Each nurse completing one specific task is more indicative of a traditional task-oriented approach, not case management's comprehensive and coordinated care.
C: Nurses with advanced training providing direct care for select clients suggests a specialized role, rather than the collaborative and holistic approach of case management.
D: Nurses delegating and supervising tasks is important in nursing practice, but it does not encompass the full scope of responsibilities in case management, which involves coordination and integration of care.
Which of the following tasks should not be delegated to a non-licensed staff?
A. During the vital signs
B. Turning the client every two hours
C. Grooming and bathing the client
D. Assessment of neurological deficit
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. Assessment of neurological deficit should not be delegated to non-licensed staff due to its complexity and critical nature. Licensed professionals, like nurses or physicians, have the necessary training and expertise to accurately assess neurological deficits. Delegating this task to non-licensed staff could lead to inaccurate assessments, delayed treatment, or missed signs of serious conditions.
A: During vital signs - This task can be safely delegated to non-licensed staff as it involves routine monitoring that does not require advanced medical knowledge.
B: Turning the client every two hours - This task can be delegated to non-licensed staff as it is a routine care activity that does not involve complex medical decision-making.
C: Grooming and bathing the client - This task can be delegated to non-licensed staff as it involves assisting with activities of daily living and does not require specialized medical training.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Flush the line with heparin as prescribed
B. Measure blood pressure in the arm with the PICC
C. Change the dressing weekly
D. Use a 3-mL syringe to flush the line
Correct answer:
A PICC line, a long-term central venous access, requires meticulous care to prevent clotting and infection. Flushing the line with heparin as prescribed typically 10 units/mL per facility protocol ensures patency by preventing thrombus formation, a critical maintenance step to sustain functionality for medications or fluids. Measuring blood pressure in the PICC arm risks dislodgement or occlusion from cuff pressure, contraindicated in practice. Changing the dressing weekly is routine but not the priority action here flushing addresses immediate patency. Using a 3-mL syringe generates excessive pressure, risking catheter rupture 10-mL syringes are standard for safety. Heparin flushing aligns with evidence-based guidelines, balancing efficacy and risk, reinforcing the nurse's role in preventing complications like line blockage, ensuring uninterrupted therapy, and maintaining client safety in a procedure with significant implications if mismanaged.
After receiving a report from the night-shift RN, which of the following should the oncoming dayshift RN assess first?
A. A 65-year-old man with a draining nasogastric tube who had a bowel resection the previous day
B. A 55-year-old man with left-sided weakness who is asking for assistance to use a urinal.
C. A 48-year-old woman scheduled for a mastectomy who is complaining of chills.
D. A 32-year-old woman who is refusing magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) prior to breakfast.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the 48-year-old woman scheduled for a mastectomy complaining of chills may be indicating signs of infection, which is a priority to assess and address promptly. Chills can be an early symptom of sepsis, a life-threatening condition. Assessing for signs of infection and sepsis is crucial for timely intervention.
The other choices are incorrect because:
A: While a 65-year-old man with a draining nasogastric tube after a bowel resection needs monitoring, it is not as urgent as assessing for signs of infection in the woman scheduled for a mastectomy.
B: The 55-year-old man with left-sided weakness requesting assistance to use a urinal may need help, but it does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation.
D: The 32-year-old woman refusing magnesium hydroxide prior to breakfast may require further assessment, but it is not as urgent as assessing for signs of infection in the woman scheduled for a mastectomy.
About these LPN exams management of care questions
LPN exams management of care practice questions, set 5 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
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