LPN exams management of care practice questions, set 20
LPN exams · management of care
LPN exams management of care practice questionsset 20
You decide who to see first, what to delegate, and which order cannot wait. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five management of care questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What skills are required for an LPN to successfully manage care?
A. The ability to organize and prioritize tasks
B. The ability to work weekends and off shifts
C. The ability to develop a comprehensive care plan
D. Close relationship with the supervising RN
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The ability to organize and prioritize tasks
To successfully manage care as an LPN, one must possess the ability to organize and prioritize tasks. This skill is crucial in ensuring efficient and effective care delivery, as it helps in planning, coordinating, and addressing patient needs in a timely manner. While the other choices may also be important in certain contexts, the key skill required for care management is the ability to organize and prioritize tasks. Working weekends and off shifts (Choice B) may be part of the job requirement but is not a skill. Developing a comprehensive care plan (Choice C) is important but falls more under the domain of care planning rather than day-to-day care management. Having a close relationship with the supervising RN (Choice D) is beneficial for collaboration but is not a standalone skill required for managing care.
Question 2
A school bus crash in the community creates an urgent need for pediatric hospital beds. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend for discharge?
A. A preschooler admitted with tonsillitis who has been receiving oral antibiotics for 24 hr
B. A toddler with pneumonia on IV antibiotics
C. An infant with a new heart defect diagnosis
D. A school-age child with a fresh surgical wound
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — A preschooler admitted with tonsillitis who has been receiving oral antibiotics for 24 hr
In a disaster requiring pediatric beds, discharge prioritizes stability and home manageability. A preschooler with tonsillitis, treated with oral antibiotics for 24 hours, is the best candidate, as they're likely past the acute phase, stable, and can continue oral therapy at home with follow-up. A toddler on IV antibiotics for pneumonia requires ongoing hospital treatment, as IV-to-oral transition isn't indicated. An infant with a new heart defect needs monitoring and diagnostics, unfit for discharge. A child with a fresh surgical wound risks infection or complications without inpatient care. The tonsillitis client's condition responsive to oral meds, no fever or distress assumed after 24 hours minimizes hospital resource use, freeing space for crash victims while ensuring safe, practical outpatient management.
Question 3
How does music potentially impact the immune system?
A. Suppresses immune response
B. Increases inflammation
C. Strengthens immune function
D. Has no effect on the immune system
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Strengthens immune function
The correct answer is C: Strengthens immune function. Music has been shown to reduce stress, which in turn can positively impact the immune system. Stress is known to weaken the immune system, so by reducing stress, music can help strengthen immune function. Additionally, music has been linked to the release of endorphins and other feel-good hormones, which can further support immune health.
Incorrect choices:
A: Suppresses immune response - This is incorrect as music generally has a positive impact on the immune system by reducing stress.
B: Increases inflammation - This is incorrect as music's ability to reduce stress can actually help decrease inflammation in the body.
D: Has no effect on the immune system - This is incorrect as there is evidence supporting the positive impact of music on immune function.
Question 4
A facility infection control nurse is reviewing the reports of a group of clients. Which of the following infections should the nurse report to the public health department?
A. MRSA
B. Health care-acquired pneumonia
C. Lyme disease
D. Bacterial conjunctivitis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Lyme disease
The correct answer is C: Lyme disease. The nurse should report Lyme disease to the public health department because it is a notifiable disease that requires public health intervention for surveillance and control. Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness that can have serious consequences if not properly managed. Reporting it allows for tracking and monitoring of cases to prevent further spread.
A: MRSA is a common bacterial infection that does not require public health reporting unless there is an outbreak.
B: Health care-acquired pneumonia is a nosocomial infection and is typically managed within the healthcare facility without the need for public health reporting.
D: Bacterial conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that does not usually warrant public health reporting unless it is part of a larger outbreak.
Question 5
Identify the action that is an example of slander. Selec t one tha does not apply
A. Volunteer telling another volunteer a client's age
B. Discussing confidential information on an elevator used by visitors
C. Personal care assistant sharing information about a client with another client
D. Housekeeper who is angry at a nurse falsely telling another staff member that the nurse uses cocaine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Volunteer telling another volunteer a client's age
Rationale A: Volunteer telling another volunteer a client's age is not necessarily slander unless it is false and damages the client's reputation, which is not indicated here. Rationale B: Discussing confidential information on an elevator used by visitors can be considered slander if the information is false and harmful to the client's reputation, as it violates confidentiality and may cause harm. Rationale C: Personal care assistant sharing information about a client with another client can constitute slander if the shared information is false and damages the client's character or reputation. Rationale D: Housekeeper who is angry at a nurse falsely telling another staff member that the nurse uses cocaine is a clear example of slander, as it is a false spoken statement intended to harm the nurse's reputation.
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Question 6
Joseph is a nurse manager who uses a Theory X approach with his staff. Which one of the following assumptions about his workers would Joseph most likely believe:
A. I need to threaten my staff in order to motivate them
B. The nurses on my unit will naturally put forth effort on their own
C. My staff are hard-working and often go the extra mile
D. Staff that I've educated usually will act responsibly.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because Theory X assumes that employees are inherently lazy and need to be coerced or threatened to work efficiently. Joseph, as a Theory X manager, would likely believe that motivating his staff through threats is necessary.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
B: This choice reflects a Theory Y approach, which assumes that employees are self-motivated and will put forth effort on their own. This contradicts Joseph's Theory X approach.
C: This choice suggests that employees are hard-working and proactive, which does not align with the assumption of Theory X that employees are lazy and need to be controlled.
D: This choice implies that educated staff will act responsibly, which is not a direct assumption of Theory X that employees need to be threatened to work efficiently.
The nurse is providing care for a postoperative patient after a thyroidectomy. The new RN assesses the patient and notes laryngeal stridor with a pulse oximetry measure of 89%. What is the priority action for the nurse?
A. Immediately notify the rapid response team (RRT)
B. Apply oxygen by face mask
C. Prepare to suction the patient
D. Assess for numbness and tingling around the mouth
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Immediately notify the rapid response team (RRT). Laryngeal stridor indicates potential airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening emergency. The low pulse oximetry measure of 89% indicates inadequate oxygenation. Contacting the RRT will ensure prompt intervention by a team of healthcare providers equipped to manage the situation.
Summary:
- Option A is correct because it addresses the urgent need for intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation.
- Option B is incorrect as simply providing oxygen by face mask may not resolve the underlying airway obstruction.
- Option C is incorrect as suctioning is not the priority when there is a risk of airway compromise.
- Option D is incorrect as numbness and tingling around the mouth are not immediate concerns in this scenario.
A nurse is formulating a plan of care for a client receiving enteral feedings. The nurse identifies which nursing diagnosis as the highest priority for this client?
A. diarrhea
B. aspiration
C. risk for deficient fluid volume
D. imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: aspiration. This is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because aspiration poses the most immediate threat to the client's well-being. Aspiration can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, respiratory distress, and even death. It is crucial for the nurse to prevent aspiration by ensuring proper positioning during feeding, assessing swallowing ability, and monitoring for signs of aspiration.
A: Diarrhea is a potential complication of enteral feedings but is not as immediately life-threatening as aspiration.
C: Risk for deficient fluid volume is a concern with enteral feedings but is not as urgent as preventing aspiration.
D: Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements is important but addressing the risk of aspiration takes precedence to ensure the client's safety.
You have just received a change-of-shift report for the burn unit. Which client should you assess first?
A. Client with deep partial-thickness burns on both legs who reports severe and continuous leg pain
B. Client who has just arrived from the emergency department with facial burns sustained in a house fire
C. Client who has just been transferred from the postanesthesia care unit after having skin grafts applied to the anterior chest
D. Client admitted 3 weeks ago with full-thickness leg and buttock burns who has been waiting for 3 hours to receive discharge teaching
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the client with facial burns from a recent house fire may have airway compromise, which is a priority in burn management. Assessing for respiratory distress, burns to the airway, and potential inhalation injury is crucial. This client's condition can deteriorate rapidly, so immediate assessment is essential.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Although severe pain in a client with deep partial-thickness burns is concerning, airway compromise takes precedence in burn management.
C: While skin grafts on the anterior chest require assessment, they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway compared to facial burns.
D: Discharge teaching for a client with full-thickness burns should not take precedence over assessing a client with fresh facial burns and potential airway compromise.
Leaders in nursing must advocate for information and knowledge systems that support nursing practice. This is best accomplished by:
A. participating in organizational information technology committees
B. submitting written requests for needed information systems
C. requesting budgetary funds needed for systems
D. sending staff nurses to conferences that discuss cutting-edge technologies
Correct answer:
Advocating for systems that support nursing practice requires active involvement in decision-making processes where technology priorities are set. Participating in organizational IT committees allows nursing leaders to directly influence system selection, implementation, and funding, ensuring they meet clinical needs. This hands-on approach fosters collaboration with IT experts and administrators, aligning technology with nursing goals. Submitting requests is passive and may lack impact without broader engagement. Requesting funds is a step, but without committee influence, it's less effective. Sending staff to conferences builds knowledge but doesn't directly shape organizational decisions. Committee participation empowers leaders to champion nursing-specific solutions, making it the most effective strategy.
The nurse on the cardiac unit is preparing to administer medications after receiving the morning change-of-shift report. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
A. The cardiac glycoside to the client who has an apical pulse of 58
B. The loop diuretic to a client with a serum K+ level of 3.2 mEq/L
C. The antidysrhythmic to the client in ventricular fibrillation
D. The calcium-channel blocker who has a blood pressure of 110/68
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. Administering the antidysrhythmic to the client in ventricular fibrillation should be the nurse's first priority as this client is experiencing a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to restore normal heart rhythm. Ventricular fibrillation can lead to cardiac arrest if not treated promptly. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority because: A) The cardiac glycoside can wait since the client's apical pulse of 58 is within a normal range. B) Administering the loop diuretic to a client with a low serum K+ level can be important but not as urgent as treating ventricular fibrillation. C) Administering the calcium-channel blocker to a client with a blood pressure of 110/68 can also wait as it is not a life-threatening situation compared to ventricular fibrillation.
A nurse-manager has to make some difficult decisions around the allocation of vacation time during the holiday season. When making a decision, what should the manager do first?
A. Elicit ideas from as many staff members as possible.
B. Consider how the issue has been addressed in the past.
C. Think of as many alternatives as possible.
D. Clearly identify each of the desired objectives in the situation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because clearly identifying each desired objective in the situation is crucial before making any decision. By having a clear understanding of the goals and outcomes needed, the nurse-manager can prioritize and align vacation allocations with the overall objectives of the unit. This step ensures that decisions are purposeful and strategic.
A: Eliciting ideas from as many staff members as possible may be beneficial, but it should come after identifying objectives.
B: Considering past approaches is important, but it should not precede setting clear objectives.
C: Thinking of alternatives is useful, but without knowing the objectives, it may lead to confusion and inefficiency.
In summary, identifying desired objectives first provides a solid foundation for effective decision-making.
Which outcome is priority for a transformational leader?
A. Increased moral
B. $100% completion of isolated task
C. Mutual involvement
D. High patient satisfaction
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Mutual involvement. Transformational leaders prioritize mutual involvement as it fosters collaboration, engagement, and empowerment among team members, leading to innovative solutions and cohesive teamwork. This focus on mutual involvement also cultivates trust and shared responsibility, resulting in long-term success for the organization.
Incorrect choices:
A: Increased moral - While important, moral is not the primary focus of a transformational leader.
B: 100% completion of isolated task - Completing isolated tasks may not contribute to overall team performance and growth.
D: High patient satisfaction - Although important in certain contexts, high patient satisfaction is not typically the top priority for a transformational leader focused on team and organizational development.
A nurse is delegating a task to an assistive personnel (AP). The AP is to transfer a client who has a below-the-knee amputation from a bed to a wheelchair. The AP has never transferred a client with an amputation before. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Assist the AP after he has practiced the transfer
B. Let the AP perform the task alone
C. Assign a different AP
D. Perform the transfer herself
Correct answer:
Delegating to an AP with no experience transferring a client with an amputation requires ensuring competence and safety. Assisting the AP after he practices the transfer allows the nurse to verify skill mastery adapting for the amputation's unique needs, like balance or limb support while providing hands-on support during the initial live attempt. This balances delegation with oversight, protecting the client from falls or injury. Letting the AP work alone risks errors from inexperience, assigning another AP assumes availability and doesn't build skill, and doing it herself negates delegation's purpose. Practicing followed by assisted execution aligns with the five rights of delegation (right task, person, circumstances, direction, supervision), fostering AP growth and ensuring safe, effective care delivery.
A charge nurse discovers that a staff nurse on the unit has made repeated medication errors. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take first?
A. Identify education opportunities for the nurse regarding safe medication administration
B. Review with the nurse the principles of medication administration
C. Notify the risk management department of the situation
D. Ask the nurse to describe her medication administration procedure
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because it is important to first gather information directly from the nurse about her medication administration procedure to understand the root cause of the errors. By asking the nurse to describe her procedure, the charge nurse can identify any gaps in knowledge or skills that may be leading to the errors. This approach allows for a targeted and individualized intervention to address the specific issues.
A: Identifying education opportunities is important but should come after understanding the nurse's current practice.
B: Reviewing principles of medication administration is a good step but does not address the specific concerns of the nurse's errors.
C: Notifying risk management may be necessary but is not the first step in addressing the immediate issue with the nurse's errors.
About these LPN exams management of care questions
LPN exams management of care practice questions, set 20 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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