LPN exams management of care practice questions, set 10
LPN exams · management of care
LPN exams management of care practice questionsset 10
You decide who to see first, what to delegate, and which order cannot wait. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five management of care questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When assessing joint stability, the nurse should:
A. Observe only for swelling
B. Palpate with minimal pressure
C. Compare both sides for symmetry
D. Assess only the affected joint
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Compare both sides for symmetry
The correct answer is C: Compare both sides for symmetry. This is important when assessing joint stability because it helps to identify any discrepancies or abnormalities between the affected joint and the unaffected one. By comparing both sides, the nurse can detect any differences in size, shape, range of motion, or strength, which may indicate instability or injury. This approach provides a comprehensive assessment of joint stability and allows for a more accurate diagnosis and treatment plan.
Incorrect choices:
A: Observing only for swelling is not sufficient to assess joint stability as it may not always be present in unstable joints.
B: Palpating with minimal pressure may not provide enough information to determine joint stability accurately.
D: Assessing only the affected joint may lead to overlooking important information that could be obtained by comparing both sides for symmetry.
Question 2
As the shift begins, the nurse is assigned to care for the following patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
A. A 38-year-old patient with Graves disease and a heart rate of 94 bpm
B. A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and a fingerstick glucose level of 137 mg/dL
C. A 58-year-old patient with hypothyroidism and a heart rate of 48 bpm
D. A 49-year-old patient with Cushing disease and 1+ dependent edema
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — A 58-year-old patient with hypothyroidism and a heart rate of 48 bpm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. Bradycardia (heart rate of 48 bpm) in a patient with hypothyroidism can indicate severe hypothyroidism or myxedema coma.
2. Myxedema coma is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
3. Symptoms of myxedema coma include altered mental status, hypothermia, and respiratory failure.
4. Prompt assessment and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and potential death.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. A 38-year-old patient with Graves disease and a heart rate of 94 bpm: This patient's heart rate is elevated but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition.
B. A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and a fingerstick glucose level of 137 mg/dL: This patient's glucose level is within normal range and does not require immediate assessment.
D. A 49-year-old patient with Cushing disease and 1+ dependent edema:
Question 3
A nurse is making shift assignments in a hospital. Which of the following tasks is appropriate to assign to a licensed practical nurse?
A. Administer a nasogastric tube feeding
B. Pick up the meal trays after lunch
C. Determine adequacy of ventilator settings
D. Plan break times for assistive personnel
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Administer a nasogastric tube feeding
The correct answer is A because administering a nasogastric tube feeding falls within the scope of practice for a licensed practical nurse (LPN). LPNs are trained and authorized to perform basic nursing tasks like medication administration under the supervision of a registered nurse. Nasogastric tube feeding is a common nursing intervention that LPNs are competent to carry out safely. In contrast, options B, C, and D involve responsibilities that are outside the typical scope of practice for an LPN. Option B, picking up meal trays, is a task more suitable for a nursing assistant. Option C, determining ventilator settings, requires advanced knowledge and skills typically possessed by registered nurses or respiratory therapists. Option D, planning break times for assistive personnel, is a managerial and organizational task that is not within the direct patient care responsibilities of an LPN.
Question 4
A nurse manager is making staffing assignments for the maternal newborn unit. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager assign to a float nurse from the medical-surgical unit?
A. A client who is post-term and is receiving oxytocin for labor induction
B. A client who has preeclampsia and is receiving a continuous magnesium sulfate infusion
C. A client who gave birth to her first child and requires instruction on breastfeeding techniques
D. A client who is 2 days postoperative following a caesarean birth and is having difficulty ambulating
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — A client who is 2 days postoperative following a caesarean birth and is having difficulty ambulating
The correct answer is D because a client who is 2 days postoperative following a caesarean birth and having difficulty ambulating requires medical-surgical skills that a float nurse from the medical-surgical unit would possess. The float nurse would be familiar with postoperative care, wound management, pain management, and ambulation assistance. This assignment aligns with the principle of matching nursing staff expertise with the needs of the patient to ensure safe and effective care.
Choices A and B involve specialized care related to labor induction and preeclampsia, which require expertise in maternal-newborn care rather than medical-surgical care.
Choice C involves providing education on breastfeeding techniques, which is within the scope of maternal-newborn care and would be best handled by a nurse familiar with this area rather than a float nurse from the medical-surgical unit.
Question 5
The nurse responds to an alarm on a pulse oximeter and sees that the patient's oxygen saturation is reading 38%. The nurse observes the patient, noting a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, pink mucous membranes, and easy regular respirations. The nurse concludes that the pulse oximeter is not reading accurately. Whose theory of nursing is this nurse demonstrating?
A. Annie Goodrich
B. Lillian D. Wald
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Linda Richards
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Florence Nightingale
Florence Nightingale's theory emphasizes treating the patient based on individual needs, not just equipment readings, as seen in this scenario. The nurse assesses the patient's clinical signs normal breathing and color over a faulty 38% reading, reflecting Nightingale's focus on observation over reliance on technology. Annie Goodrich advanced nursing education, Lillian Wald pioneered public health, and Linda Richards focused on documentation, none directly tied to this patient-centered approach. Nightingale's holistic view prioritizes the person over the disease or tools, a principle vital in modern nursing. This nurse's critical thinking avoids unnecessary intervention, like oxygen therapy, based on a false alarm, ensuring care aligns with the patient's actual condition, a direct application of Nightingale's emphasis on environmental and individual assessment for effective, tailored care.
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Question 6
A nurse suspects that a coworker is under the influence of alcohol. Which of the following behaviors in the workplace are consistent with substance use disorder? (Select all that apply.)
A. Taking extended lunch periods and breaks
B. Calling in sick frequently on Mondays or Fridays
C. Expressing frustration with work assignments
D. Demonstrating decreased concern about personal appearance and grooming
Correct answer:
Substance use disorder manifests in workplace behaviors disrupting reliability and professionalism. Taking extended lunch periods and breaks suggests impaired time management or concealment efforts, common as individuals may use substances off-site. Frequent sick calls, especially Mondays or Fridays, align with patterns of post-binge recovery or avoidance, extending weekends. Expressing frustration with assignments is nonspecific, often situational, not uniquely tied to substance use. Decreased grooming indicates neglect of self-care, a hallmark of impairment as priorities shift to substance access. Excessive cologne or mouthwash use masks alcohol odor, another red flag. These behaviors extended breaks, absenteeism, and poor grooming form a pattern disrupting client care, warranting concern and investigation to ensure safety and support the coworker, per professional and ethical standards.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the plan of care for a client following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following procedural plans is the healthcare professional following?
A. patient classification categories
B. diagnostic related groups
C. Care map / clinical practice guideline
D. functional nursing
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Care map / clinical practice guideline. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is using a Care Map or clinical practice guideline to review the plan of care for the client post total hip arthroplasty. Care maps provide a structured, step-by-step approach to care delivery based on evidence-based practices, ensuring consistency and quality of care.
Choice A, patient classification categories, does not involve a specific plan of care but rather categorizes patients based on acuity levels. Choice B, diagnostic related groups, is a payment classification system that groups patients with similar diagnoses and treatments for reimbursement purposes, not for developing care plans. Choice D, functional nursing, is a care delivery system where tasks are divided among staff based on their function, which is not the same as following a procedural plan like a care map.
A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure and is receiving IV corticosteroids. Which of the following information is most important for the nurse to report at shift change?
A. Most recent blood glucose reading
B. Laboratory tests scheduled for next shift
C. Reddened area on the coccyx
D. Glasgow Coma Scale score
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Glasgow Coma Scale score. This is the most important information to report because it assesses the client's level of consciousness and neurological status, which are crucial indicators of the client's condition with increased intracranial pressure. Changes in the Glasgow Coma Scale score could indicate deterioration or improvement in the client's neurological status.
A: Most recent blood glucose reading - While important for overall care, it is not directly related to the client's intracranial pressure and corticosteroid administration.
B: Laboratory tests scheduled for next shift - Important for monitoring, but not as critical as the Glasgow Coma Scale score in assessing immediate neurological status.
C: Reddened area on the coccyx - Important for preventing pressure ulcers, but not directly related to the client's neurological status and intracranial pressure.
A nurse is completing an incident report after administering an incorrect dose of medication to a client, even though the client experienced no ill effects from the error. What is the purpose of completing the incident report?
A. To discipline the nurse involved
B. To inform the client's family
C. Identifying situations that contribute to the occurrence of medication errors
D. To update the client's medical record
Correct answer:
Incident reports are quality-improvement tools designed to identify and analyze factors contributing to errors, not to punish staff or inform families. Completing a report after administering an incorrect medication dose, even without harm, serves to pinpoint causes such as miscommunication, labeling issues, or workflow flaws enabling systemic changes to prevent future mistakes. This proactive approach enhances safety across the facility, aligning with risk management goals. Disciplining the nurse isn't the primary intent unless negligence is evident, and family notification isn't required for no-harm events per standard protocols. Updating the medical record documents the error's clinical impact, not its cause, which the incident report addresses. Identifying contributing situations ensures lessons are learned, reducing recurrence and upholding the commitment to safe, high-quality care.
The unit manager has created a decision grid in order to assist with a difficult staffing decision that will affect many nurses. The decision grid will allow the manager to:
A. examine alternatives visually and compare each against the same criteria.
B. ensure that the decision is made objectively rather than subjectively.
C. plot the outcomes of a decision over time and evaluate the decision-making process.
D. predict when events must take place to complete a project on time.
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why answer choice A is correct:
1. A decision grid is a visual tool used to compare alternatives against the same criteria.
2. By examining alternatives visually, the unit manager can easily see how each option measures up against the set criteria.
3. This visual comparison helps in making an informed decision based on a clear understanding of each alternative's strengths and weaknesses.
4. It enables the manager to objectively evaluate and select the best option based on the established criteria.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B. Ensuring objectivity is important but not the primary purpose of a decision grid.
C. Plotting outcomes over time is more related to decision analysis tools like decision trees, not decision grids.
D. Predicting project timelines is not the main purpose of a decision grid, which focuses on comparing alternatives visually.
Which situation requires the nurse to follow the ethical principle of beneficence?
A. Informing a patient about treatment risks
B. Advocating for pain relief measures
C. Respecting a patient's decision to refuse treatment
D. Providing complete transparency about a medication error
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B, advocating for pain relief measures, as it aligns with the ethical principle of beneficence, which emphasizes the duty to do good and promote the well-being of patients. By advocating for pain relief, the nurse is actively working to alleviate the patient's suffering and improve their quality of life. This action demonstrates the nurse's commitment to promoting the patient's best interests.
In contrast:
A: Informing a patient about treatment risks relates more to the ethical principle of autonomy, allowing the patient to make informed decisions.
C: Respecting a patient's decision to refuse treatment is based on the principle of autonomy, respecting the patient's right to make choices about their own care.
D: Providing transparency about a medication error is rooted in the principle of veracity, promoting honesty and truthfulness in communication with patients.
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 established regulations for the education and training of which category of health-care worker?
A. Certified nurse aide (CNA)
B. Registered nurse (RN)
C. Licensed practical nurse (LPN)
D. Ward clerk
Correct answer:
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1987 specifically established training and certification standards for certified nurse aides (CNAs) in long-term care facilities. It mandated minimum hours of education and competency evaluation to ensure CNAskey caregivers for tasks like bathing or feedingmeet quality standards, improving resident care in nursing homes. RNs and LPNs fall under state nursing boards, with distinct licensure predating OBRA. Ward clerks, administrative staff, lack clinical training regulations under this act. For example, OBRA's 75-hour training requirement for CNAs addressed prior inconsistencies, reflecting a federal push for accountability in unskilled roles. This focus distinguishes CNAs from licensed or non-clinical workers, aligning with the act's goal of elevating care quality through standardized preparation, making it the correct category impacted.
An experienced nurse-manager has been described as a 'right-brain thinker.' This manager's decision-making process likely prioritizes what characteristic?
A. Linear analysis
B. Intuition
C. Transparency
D. Efficiency
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Intuition. Right-brain thinking is associated with creativity, intuition, and holistic thinking. An experienced nurse-manager who is described as a 'right-brain thinker' is likely to prioritize intuition in their decision-making process. Intuition allows for quick and instinctual decision-making based on patterns, experiences, and gut feelings, which can be beneficial in fast-paced and complex healthcare settings.
A: Linear analysis is not likely to be prioritized by a right-brain thinker, as it involves structured and logical step-by-step reasoning.
C: Transparency is not directly linked to right-brain thinking and may not necessarily be the top priority in decision-making for this manager.
D: Efficiency is important in decision-making, but a right-brain thinker may prioritize intuition over efficiency when making decisions in healthcare settings.
An experienced nurse-manager has been described as being a 'rightbrain thinker.' This manager's decision-making process likely prioritizes what characteristic?
A. Intuition
B. Linear analysis
C. Transparency
D. Efficiency
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Intuition. A 'right-brain thinker' typically relies on intuition, creativity, and holistic thinking in decision-making. Intuition allows for quick decision-making based on gut feelings and emotions rather than solely on logic or analysis. In this case, the nurse-manager's decision-making process is likely to prioritize intuition to consider various factors simultaneously and make swift decisions.
Summary:
- Choice B: Linear analysis is incorrect as it involves a step-by-step logical approach, which is more characteristic of left-brain thinking.
- Choice C: Transparency is incorrect as it pertains to openness and honesty in communication, not necessarily related to decision-making style.
- Choice D: Efficiency is incorrect as it focuses on effectiveness in achieving goals quickly, while intuition prioritizes quick decisions based on feelings and perceptions.
An RN is leading a care team on a busy hospital unit. What tasks is the RN justified in delegating to NAP?
A. Feeding a client who has unilateral weakness
B. Assessing a client's surgical wound
C. Weighing a client who has chronic heart failure
D. Transporting a client to a diagnostic test
Correct answer:
The RN can delegate feeding a client with unilateral weakness to an NAP, as it's a supportive task within their scope, requiring training but not clinical judgment. Assessing a surgical wound demands RN-level assessment skills e.g., spotting infectionbeyond NAP capabilities. Weighing a client with heart failure might seem simple, but interpreting weight changes for fluid status often falls to RNs, though some NAPs are trained for the act itself; here, it's not the best fit. Transporting clients is delegable, but feeding is a clearer, universally accepted NAP task. For example, assisting with meals leverages NAP skills while freeing RNs for complex care, aligning with delegation guidelines ( e.g., ANA principles). This ensures patient needs are met efficiently without compromising safety, as feeding doesn't require the RN's licensure scope, making it a justified choice in a busy unit.
About these LPN exams management of care questions
LPN exams management of care practice questions, set 10 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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