You read heart failure, perfusion, and blood-pressure stems and decide what to do before the patient declines. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five cardiovascular questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Combined chemotherapy of tuberculosis is used to:
A. Decrease mycobacterium drug-resistance
B. Increase mycobacterium drug-resistance
C. Decrease the antimicrobal activity
D. Decrease the onset of antimycobacterial drugs biotransformation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Decrease mycobacterium drug-resistance
The correct answer is A: Decrease mycobacterium drug-resistance. Combined chemotherapy of tuberculosis involves using multiple drugs to target different stages of the bacteria's life cycle, reducing the chances of resistance developing. This approach is effective in preventing the bacteria from adapting and becoming resistant to any single drug.
Explanation:
1. Using multiple drugs targets different mechanisms of action, making it harder for the bacteria to develop resistance.
2. Combination therapy can also prevent the growth of drug-resistant strains by attacking the bacteria from multiple angles.
3. By reducing the likelihood of resistance, combined chemotherapy increases the effectiveness of treatment and improves patient outcomes.
Summary:
B: Increase mycobacterium drug-resistance - This is incorrect as combined chemotherapy aims to decrease, not increase, drug resistance.
C: Decrease the antimicrobial activity - This is incorrect as combined chemotherapy actually enhances the antimicrobial activity against the tuberculosis bacteria.
D: Decrease the onset of antimycobacterial drugs biotransformation - This is
Question 2
A patient tells a nurse, “My doctor thinks my problem may lie with the neurotransmitters in my brain. What are neurotransmitters?†The reply that will give the patient the best understanding of neurotransmitters is, “Neurotransmitters are:
A. the chemical messengers that cause brain cells to turn on or off.â€
B. small clumps of cells that alert the other brain cells to receive messages.â€
C. tiny areas of the brain that are responsible for controlling our emotions.â€
D. weblike structures that provide connections among various parts of the brain.â€
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — the chemical messengers that cause brain cells to turn on or off.â€
The correct answer is A: "the chemical messengers that cause brain cells to turn on or off." This is the best answer because neurotransmitters are indeed chemical substances that transmit signals across synapses between neurons, either exciting or inhibiting the receiving neuron. This explanation accurately describes the essential function of neurotransmitters in regulating brain cell activity.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
B: "small clumps of cells that alert the other brain cells to receive messages." This is incorrect as neurotransmitters are not clumps of cells but rather individual molecules that facilitate communication between neurons.
C: "tiny areas of the brain that are responsible for controlling our emotions." This is incorrect as neurotransmitters are not specific areas of the brain but rather chemicals that play a role in various brain functions, including emotions.
D: "weblike structures that provide connections among various parts of the brain." This is incorrect as neurotransmitters are not physical structures but chemical substances that facilitate communication between neurons.
Question 3
The physician prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), a first-generation antipsychotic drug, for a patient with schizophrenia who displays delusions, hallucinations, apathy, and social isolation. Which symptoms should most be monitored to evaluate the expected improvement from this medication?
A. Talking to himself, belief that others will harm him
B. Flat affect, avoidance of social activities, poor hygiene
C. Loss of interest in recreational activities, alogia
D. Impaired eye contact, needs help to complete tasks
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Talking to himself, belief that others will harm him
The correct answer is A because the symptoms of delusions and hallucinations are classic indicators of psychosis in schizophrenia. Monitoring improvements in these symptoms is crucial to evaluating the effectiveness of the antipsychotic medication. Delusions involve false beliefs, such as the patient talking to himself or believing others will harm him, while hallucinations involve sensory perceptions that are not real. Therefore, monitoring these symptoms will help assess the medication's impact on reducing the patient's psychotic symptoms.
Incorrect choices:
B: Flat affect, avoidance of social activities, poor hygiene - These symptoms are more indicative of negative symptoms of schizophrenia, which may not improve as rapidly or significantly with antipsychotic medication.
C: Loss of interest in recreational activities, alogia - These symptoms are also negative symptoms and may not directly reflect the improvement in psychotic symptoms targeted by haloperidol.
D: Impaired eye contact, needs help to complete tasks - These symptoms are not specific to delusions or hallucinations, which are the primary
Question 4
The mother asks the nurse if her child's iron deficiency anemia is related to the child's frequent infections. The nurse responds based on the understanding of which of the following?
A. Little is known about iron-deficiency anemia and its relationship to infection in children.
B. Children with iron deficiency anemia are more susceptible to infection than are other children.
C. Children with iron-deficiency anemia are less susceptible to infection than are other children.
D. Children with iron-deficient anemia are equally as susceptible to infection as are other children.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Children with iron deficiency anemia are more susceptible to infection than are other children.
The correct answer is B: Children with iron deficiency anemia are more susceptible to infection than are other children. Iron is crucial for the immune system to function optimally. In iron deficiency anemia, the body lacks enough iron to produce hemoglobin, which can impair the immune response, making individuals more prone to infections. Therefore, children with iron deficiency anemia are indeed more susceptible to infections.
Explanation of other choices:
A: Little is known about iron-deficiency anemia and its relationship to infection in children - This is incorrect as there is a clear understanding of the link between iron deficiency anemia and susceptibility to infections.
C: Children with iron-deficiency anemia are less susceptible to infection than are other children - This is incorrect as iron deficiency impairs the immune response, making individuals more susceptible to infections.
D: Children with iron-deficient anemia are equally as susceptible to infection as are other children - This is incorrect as iron deficiency compromises the immune system, leading to increased susceptibility to
Question 5
A leukemia investigator plans to obtain bone marrow under general anesthesia to measure minimal residual disease (MRD) and to see if this time point can predict early relapse. The specimen will be obtained at a time point when otherwise no bone marrow would be sampled. The results are not shared with the treating oncologist, and no therapeutic interventions are decided or based on the results. Which of the following statements is most accurate about this intervention?
A. It constitutes a minimal-risk procedure because bone marrow assessments are considered routine for patients diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
B. It constitutes a minimal-risk procedure because it is a single additional procedure being performed during the course of treatment.
C. It constitutes a greater than minimal-risk procedure because it is being done under general anesthesia.
D. It is justifiable because future patients may benefit from knowledge gained by the research.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — It constitutes a greater than minimal-risk procedure because it is being done under general anesthesia.
The correct answer is C because obtaining bone marrow under general anesthesia carries inherent risks that make it greater than minimal-risk. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. General anesthesia poses risks such as allergic reactions, breathing problems, and potential complications, making the procedure more than minimal-risk.
2. Even though bone marrow assessments are routine for leukemia patients, the use of general anesthesia elevates the risk level.
3. The fact that the results are not shared with the treating oncologist and no therapeutic interventions are based on them indicates that the procedure is solely for research purposes, emphasizing the risk-benefit analysis.
4. Choice A is incorrect because the use of general anesthesia increases the procedure's risk level beyond routine.
5. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the inherent risks of general anesthesia, not just the number of procedures performed.
6. Choice D is irrelevant to the risk assessment of the specific procedure and does not address the immediate safety concerns associated with general anesthesia.
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Question 6
The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted to the coronary care unit following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and percutaneous coronary intervention the previous day. Teaching for this patient would include
A. when cardiac rehabilitation will begin.
B. the typical emotional responses to AMI.
C. information regarding discharge medications.
D. the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: when cardiac rehabilitation will begin. This is important teaching for a patient following an AMI and PCI as cardiac rehabilitation plays a crucial role in improving recovery and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. It helps in improving physical strength, managing stress, and promoting overall heart health. By educating the patient about the timing and benefits of cardiac rehabilitation, the nurse is empowering the patient to actively participate in their recovery process.
Incorrect choices:
B: The typical emotional responses to AMI - While emotional support is important, teaching about emotional responses may not be as crucial as focusing on physical recovery through cardiac rehabilitation.
C: Information regarding discharge medications - Important, but not as immediate as cardiac rehabilitation for post-AMI recovery.
D: The pathophysiology of coronary artery disease - While education is important, understanding the pathophysiology may not be as pressing as knowing when to start cardiac rehabilitation for immediate recovery.
The nurse has finished reviewing the shift report on a cardiac unit. The nurse should plan to see which of the following assigned clients first?
A. A client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy who is reporting dyspnea.
B. A client who had a cardiac caterterization and will be ambulating for the first time.
C. A client receiving antibiotics for bacterial endocarditis who is reporting anxiety and chest pain.
D. A client who is recovering from coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery with a temperature of 101 F.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because a client receiving antibiotics for bacterial endocarditis who is reporting anxiety and chest pain is showing signs of a potential cardiac emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Chest pain and anxiety are red flags for cardiac issues such as myocardial infarction that could lead to life-threatening situations. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize this client to assess and intervene promptly.
Choice A is incorrect because dyspnea in a client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, while concerning, does not indicate an acute cardiac emergency that requires immediate attention.
Choice B is incorrect because a client who had a cardiac catheterization and will be ambulating for the first time does not exhibit urgent signs that necessitate immediate intervention compared to a client with chest pain and anxiety.
Choice D is incorrect because a temperature of 101 F in a client recovering from CABG surgery is not as concerning as chest pain and anxiety, which could indicate a cardiac complication.
Antiaggregants are used in disorders of brain circulation for:
A. Stimulation of the metabolic processes in neurons
B. Dilation of cerebral vessels
C. Improving the microcirculation in cerebral tissue
D. All the above
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Improving the microcirculation in cerebral tissue. Antiaggregants are used in disorders of brain circulation to prevent platelet aggregation and improve blood flow in the microcirculation of cerebral tissue. This helps to enhance oxygen and nutrient delivery to brain cells, ultimately improving brain function.
Rationale:
A: Stimulation of the metabolic processes in neurons is not the primary purpose of antiaggregants. While improved blood flow may indirectly support neuronal metabolism, the main goal of antiaggregants is to prevent clot formation and improve circulation.
B: Dilation of cerebral vessels is not the main mechanism of action for antiaggregants. Although vasodilation can enhance blood flow, antiaggregants primarily work by preventing platelet aggregation rather than directly causing vessel dilation.
D: All the above is incorrect because the primary purpose of antiaggregants in disorders of brain circulation is to improve microcirculation in cerebral tissue, not to stimulate metabolic processes in neurons or
A pediatric fellow is planning a project intended to decrease the incidence of acute chest syndrome among patients with sickle cell disease who are already admitted to the hospital for other reasons. The fellow discussed with her mentor whether the project proposal should be submitted for review by the Institutional Review Board (IRB). The mentor explains that, at their intuition, quality improvement activities do not require IRB review but research projects must be submitted to the IRB. Which of the following is NOT a relevant consideration in determining whether the project is research or quality improvement?
A. The aim to create new knowledge for the individual institution versus discovering new and generalizable knowledge
B. The chosen methodology which will include repeated Plan-Do-Study-Act cycles
C. The intent to publish the results in a peer reviewed hematology journal
D. The efforts to hold biases/confounders stable over time, rather than control for them with, for example, randomization
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the intent to publish results in a peer-reviewed journal is not a determining factor in distinguishing between quality improvement and research activities. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. Quality improvement focuses on improving processes within an institution to enhance patient care, while research aims to generate new knowledge that is generalizable beyond the institution.
2. The chosen methodology (B) such as using Plan-Do-Study-Act cycles is often associated with quality improvement projects to test and implement changes iteratively.
3. Efforts to hold biases stable over time (D) are more aligned with research, as quality improvement projects may not necessarily require controlling for biases like randomization.
4. The intent to publish in a peer-reviewed journal (C) can apply to both quality improvement and research projects, but the key factor in determining the need for IRB review is whether the project aims to generate generalizable knowledge (research) or improve local processes (quality improvement).
The client is being given a calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers have what effect on the heart?
A. They increase the preload on the heart.
B. They decrease the velocity of electrical activity on the AV node.
C. They block the sodium channels in the heart muscle.
D. They cause vasoconstriction of coronary arteries.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Calcium channel blockers decrease the velocity of electrical activity on the AV node. This is because calcium channel blockers specifically target calcium channels in the heart, which are responsible for the influx of calcium ions during the cardiac action potential. By blocking these channels, calcium channel blockers slow down the rate of electrical conduction through the AV node, leading to a decrease in heart rate and potentially a decrease in blood pressure.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Calcium channel blockers do not increase the preload on the heart. Preload is the amount of blood that fills the heart before it contracts, and calcium channel blockers do not directly affect this.
C: Calcium channel blockers do not block sodium channels in the heart muscle. They primarily target calcium channels.
D: Calcium channel blockers do not cause vasoconstriction of coronary arteries. They may actually cause vasodilation in coronary arteries, leading to increased blood flow to the heart muscle.
Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility?
A. atopic or anaphylactic
B. cytotoxic
C. immune complex
D. delayed
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: delayed hypersensitivity. Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, leading to the mother producing antibodies against the Rh antigen. This immune response is delayed and involves sensitized T cells. This results in the destruction of Rh-positive red blood cells in the newborn.
Choice A (atopic or anaphylactic) refers to type I hypersensitivity, which involves immediate IgE-mediated reactions like allergies. Choice B (cytotoxic) is a close contender, as it also involves antibodies targeting specific antigens on cell surfaces, but it typically involves antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity rather than delayed responses. Choice C (immune complex) relates to type III hypersensitivity, where immune complexes deposit in tissues and activate complement, causing inflammation. However, this mechanism is not the primary process in hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by
When should autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation be used, and what are the common cancers it is used for?
A. It should be used when high dose therapy is needed to maximize response. Most common cancers it is used for include lymphoma, late relapse of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, neuroblastoma, and Ewing sarcoma.
B. It should be used any time this approach can provide a meaningful survival benefit over chemotherapy. Most common cancers it is used for include neuroblastoma, responsive brain tumors in young children to avoid/minimize early radiation therapy, and relapsed lymphoma.
C. It should be used for tumors in which a graft-versus-tumor effect does not occur. Most common cancers include neuroblastoma, lymphoma, selected brain tumors, rhabdomyosarcoma, and Ewing sarcoma with lung metastases.
D. It should be used to avoid extensive treatment with chemotherapy and to shorten treatment. Most common cancers include neuroblastoma, relapsed Wilms' tumor, and selected brain tumors.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation should be used when it can provide a meaningful survival benefit over chemotherapy.
2. The most common cancers it is used for include neuroblastoma, responsive brain tumors in young children to avoid/minimize early radiation therapy, and relapsed lymphoma.
3. This choice aligns with the current guidelines and evidence-based practice in utilizing autologous stem cell transplantation for specific cancer types to improve outcomes.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Incorrect. It is not necessary to use autologous stem cell transplantation solely for high-dose therapy. The listed cancers are not the most common indications for this procedure.
C: Incorrect. The statement about the graft-versus-tumor effect is misleading, and the listed cancers are not the most common ones treated with autologous stem cell transplantation.
D: Incorrect. Autologous stem cell transplantation is not used to shorten treatment or avoid extensive chemotherapy. The listed cancers
A 3-year-old nonsyndromic, well-appearing male with no significant past medical history presents with an abdominal mass palpated by his mother when giving him a bath. CT imaging reveals a 9-cm right renal mass without involvement of the inferior vena cava (IVC) and no evidence of tumor thrombus by ultrasound. The left kidney appears normal, and there is no imaging evidence of tumor rupture or adherence to surrounding organs. There are diffuse, bilateral pulmonary metastases from which he is asymptomatic with a normal respiratory rate and no supplemental oxygen requirement. Following the National Wilms Tumor Study Group (NWTS)/Children's Oncology Group (COG) approach to pediatric renal tumors, which of the following are appropriate next steps?
A. Core biopsy of the renal mass followed by three drug chemotherapyâ€â€vincristine, actinomycin, and doxorubicin
B. Nephrectomy with lymph node sampling followed by chemotherapy based on histology and stage
C. Fine-needle aspiration followed by three drug chemotherapyâ€â€vincristine, actinomycin, and doxorubicin
D. Neoadjuvant three drug chemotherapyâ€â€vincristine, actinomycin and doxorubicinâ€â€followed by nephrectomy at week 6
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Nephrectomy with lymph node sampling followed by chemotherapy based on histology and stage. This is the appropriate next step in managing this patient with a Wilms tumor. Nephrectomy is the primary treatment for Wilms tumor to remove the primary tumor and obtain tissue for histologic diagnosis. Lymph node sampling helps determine if there is any spread of the tumor. Chemotherapy based on histology and stage is tailored to the specific characteristics of the tumor and extent of disease.
Choice A (Core biopsy of the renal mass followed by three drug chemotherapy) is incorrect because core biopsy may not provide enough tissue for a definitive diagnosis, and treatment should be guided by surgical resection.
Choice C (Fine-needle aspiration followed by chemotherapy) is incorrect because fine-needle aspiration may not provide adequate tissue for diagnosis, and surgical resection is needed for definitive management.
Choice D (Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by nephrectomy) is incorrect because nephrectomy is
A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, the nurse should implement what intervention?
A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day. This intervention is appropriate because it focuses on improving the patient's nutritional intake through easily digestible meals, which can help address early signs of malnutrition. Small, soft-textured meals are easier for the patient to eat, especially if they are experiencing symptoms like mouth sores or difficulty swallowing. This approach also promotes regular intake of nutrients throughout the day, which can be more beneficial than relying solely on one large meal.
Incorrect answers:
A: Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate oral or enteral nutrition. It is not the first-line intervention for early signs of malnutrition.
B: Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement is usually considered for patients who are unable to eat orally in the long term. It is not indicated for early signs of malnutrition.
D: Assigning responsibility for the patient's nutrition to friends and
Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of both drugs in the patient's disease?
A. Decreased intestinal reabsorption of bile acids
B. Decreased conversion of cholesterol to bile acids
C. Decreased synthesis of cholesterol by the liver
D. Upregulation of hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Upregulation of hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors. This action is most likely to mediate the therapeutic effect of both drugs in the patient's disease because it would increase the clearance of LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream, leading to decreased cholesterol levels. By upregulating LDL receptors on hepatocytes, more LDL particles are taken up by the liver, reducing circulating LDL levels and lowering the risk of cardiovascular disease.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the mechanism of action of the drugs in lowering cholesterol levels. Decreased intestinal reabsorption of bile acids (Choice A) may affect cholesterol absorption but is not the primary mechanism of action for most cholesterol-lowering drugs. Decreased conversion of cholesterol to bile acids (Choice B) and decreased synthesis of cholesterol by the liver (Choice C) do not target the clearance of LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream, which is the key therapeutic goal in managing hyperchole
LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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