Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questions, set 6
Nursing textbooks · medical-surgical
Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questionsset 6
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the Nursing textbooks exam guide or more Nursing textbooks practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse is assisting a patient who is 2 days postoperative from a cesarean section dangle in preparation for sitting in a chair. After assisting the patient to stand up, the patient's knees buckle and she tells the nurse she feels faint. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Supporting the patient as she stands, waiting a few moments, then continuing the move to the chair
B. Calling for assistance and continuing the move with the assistance of another nurse
C. Lowering the patient back to the side of the bed and pivoting her back into bed
D. Having the patient sit down on the bed and dangle her feet before moving
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Lowering the patient back to the side of the bed and pivoting her back into bed
If a patient becomes faint and their knees buckle when moving from bed to a chair or ambulating, the nurse should stop the activity, as the patient has demonstrated a clear risk for falling. The nurse should lower the patient back to the side of the bed, pivot her back into bed, cover her, and raise the side rails. Assess the patient's vital signs and for the presence of other symptoms. When vital signs are stable, another attempt can be made with the assistance of another staff. Instruct the patient to remain in the sitting position on the side of the bed for several minutes to allow the circulatory system to adjust to a change in position and prevent hypotension related to a sudden change from the supine position.
Question 2
The nurse is working in the preoperative area with a client going to surgery for a cholecystectomy. The client has histaminez-receptor antagonists prescribed preoperatively. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. What would be the nurse's best answer?
A. These medications slow motor activity.
B. These medications decrease the amount of anesthesia you will need.
C. These medications decrease anxiety before surgery.
D. These medications decrease gastric acidity and volume.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — These medications decrease gastric acidity and volume.
The anesthesiologist frequently prescribes preoperative medications. Common preoperative medications include the following: anticholinergics, which decrease respiratory tract secretions, dry mucous membranes, and interrupt vagal stimulation; anti anxiety drugs, which reduce preoperative anxiety, slow motor activity, and promote induction of anesthesia; histaminez-receptor antagonists, which decrease gastric acidity and volume; narcotics, which decrease the amount of anesthesia needed, help reduce anxiety and pain, and promote sleep; sedatives, which promote sleep, decrease anxiety, and reduce the amount of anesthesia needed; and tranquilizers, which reduce nausea, prevent emesis, and enhance preoperative sedation.
Question 3
Before an invasive procedure, a client is prescribed antibiotics. The nurse understands the reason for this preventative action is to avoid which complication?
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Rheumatic heart disease
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Infective endocarditis
Infective endocarditis can compound valvular damage but can be minimized with the preventative use of antibiotics before invasive procedures and dental work. Rheumatic heart disease is associated with the original cause of valve disease and is not prevented with prophylactic antibiotic use. Although congestive heart failure is a complication associated with valvular disease, prophylactic antibiotic therapy is not prescribed for prevention. One type of valvular disease is mitral valve regurgitation. When this occurs rapidly, the heart is less able to compensate, causing the client to develop signs of cardiogenic shock leading to pulmonary congestion. The use of antibiotics is not meant to avoid this complication.
Question 4
A nurse working in a long-term care facility reviews the electronic health records of patients who have fallen in the last month to determine if there is a common risk factor. Which QSEN competency is the nurse demonstrating?
A. Patient-centered care
B. Evidence-based practice
C. Teamwork and collaboration
D. Informatics
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Informatics
Informatics uses information and technology to communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate error, and support decision making. Thoughtful, patient-centered care emphasizes recognition of the patient or designee as the source of control and full partner in compassionate and coordinated care, based on respect for patients' preferences, values, and needs. Evidence-based practice integrates the best current evidence with clinical expertise and patient and family preferences and values to deliver optimal health care. Teamwork and collaboration refer to effective functioning within nursing and interprofessional teams, fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared decision making to achieve quality patient care.
Question 5
The student nurse is providing skilled care for a palliative care client. The client is bedbound, requiring skin care during bathing, oral care, and every 2 hours positioning. In which NCLEX-PN test category would the student anticipate finding questions related to this clinical care situation?
A. Health promotion and maintenance
B. Psychosocial integrity
C. Physiologic integrity
D. Safe and effective care environment
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Physiologic integrity
The role of the NCLEX-PN is to ensure that the student has sufficient knowledge to progress to a competent entry-level practitioner. Linking clinical experiences to classroom knowledge base is essential. This content falls under the physiologic integrity subcategory of basic care and comfort. This category tests the skill of the nurse in a clinical situation completing basic care and comfort needs. The health promotion and maintenance category has content areas including caring for individuals through life transitions. Psychosocial integrity includes caring for mental health needs and using therapeutic communication. Safe and effective care environment ensures appropriate nursing care and infection control.
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Question 6
The registered nurse (RN) and licensed practical nurse (LPN) are preparing an educational program for clients who may be at risk for the development of iron-deficiency anemia. Which client(s) would receive the greatest benefit from this program? Select all that apply.
A. An adolescent client with bulimia nervosa
B. An older adult client on a fixed income
C. A client with Crohn's disease
D. A client who lives in a nursing home
E. A client who is a vegetarian
Correct answer:
Those who consume a healthy diet absorb less than 10% of the iron in food. Clients whose nutrition is compromised by unhealthy dieting or who cannot afford to eat a healthy diet, lack knowledge about nutrition, or have malabsorption disorders are at great risk for iron-deficiency anemia. An adolescent client with bulimia nervosa has an unhealthy diet. An older adult client on a fixed income may not have the funds to eat a healthy diet. A client with Crohn's disease has a malabsorption syndrome. A client who resides in a nursing home has prepared meals as well as available supplements if required. A client who is a vegetarian is still able to receive ample iron supplementation in the vegetables being eaten.
A nurse is assigned to care for a client who is to receive a cholinergic blocking drug. The nurse obtains the history from the client. Which of the following would alert the nurse to the need for cautious administration?
A. The client has a decreased liver function.
B. The client has a history of hallucinations or psychosis.
C. The client has a cardiovascular disease.
D. The client has a pulmonary disease.
Correct answer:
It is important for the nurse to know if the client has decreased liver or kidney function so that the cholinergic blocking drug can be administered cautiously in the client. Other conditions in clients that require cautious use include tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension, hypotension, tendency toward urinary retention, and obstructive disease of the urinary system or gastrointestinal tract. The cholinergic blocking drugs are given with caution to older adults. The nurse should use dopamine receptor agonist drugs with caution in clients with a history of hallucinations or psychosis or cardiovascular disease. The nurse should use dopaminergic drugs with caution in clients with pulmonary diseases.
A patient comes to the walk-in clinic with complaints of pain in his foot following stepping on a roofing nail 4 days ago. The patient has a visible red streak running up his foot and ankle. What health problem should the nurse suspect?
A. Cellulitis
B. Local inflammation
C. Elephantiasis
D. Lymphangitis
Correct answer:
Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. It arises most commonly from a focus of infection in an extremity. Usually, the infectious organism is hemolytic streptococcus. The characteristic red streaks that extend up the arm or the leg from an infected wound outline the course of the lymphatic vessels as they drain. Cellulitis is caused by bacteria, which cause a generalized edema in the subcutaneous tissues surrounding the affected area. Local inflammation would not present with red streaks in the lymphatic channels. Elephantiasis is transmitted by mosquitoes that carry parasitic worm larvae; the parasites obstruct the lymphatic channels and results in gross enlargement of the limbs.
A client has an allergic reaction to seafood with generalized edema and reports being unable to get a wedding ring off as it is too tight. The client was unable to remove it with soap and water. What action by the nurse can facilitate removal of the ring without damaging it?
A. Administer a diuretic and wait for the swelling to go down.
B. There is not another option other than to use a ring cutter to remove the ring.
C. Use twine to wrap the finger and, when the tissue is compressed, pull the free end of the twine and remove the ring.
D. Use a tongue blade to remove the ring.
Correct answer:
If applying soap or oil to the finger proves unsuccessful, the nurse may wrap the finger with twine. Once the tissue is compressed, the ring can be removed by pulling on the free end of the twine. This technique is preferable to damaging the ring with a metal cutter. If nothing else facilitates ring removal, however, cutting the ring is a better option than allowing damage from ischemia to develop. The nurse cannot administer a diuretic without a physician's prescription, and allowing the swelling to go down may cause tissue ischemia from the constricted ring. There are options other than cutting the ring, but if they fail, there is no other choice. A tongue blade will not remove a ring that is too tight.
The school nurse notes a 6-year-old running across the playground with friends. The child stops in midstride, freezing for a few seconds. Then the child resumes running across the playground. The school nurse suspects what in this child?
A. An absence seizure
B. A myoclonic seizure
C. A partial seizure
D. A tonic-clonic seizure
Correct answer:
Absence seizures, formerly referred to as petit mal seizures, are more common in children. They are characterized by a brief loss of consciousness during which physical activity ceases. The person stares blankly; the eyelids flutter; the lips move; and slight movement of the head, arms, and legs occurs. These seizures typically last for a few seconds, and the person seldom falls to the ground. Because of their brief duration and relative lack of prominent movements, these seizures often go unnoticed. People with absence seizures can have them many times a day. Partial, or focal, seizures begin in a specific area of the cerebral cortex. Both myoclonic and tonic-clonic seizures involve jerking movements.
A nurse in a memory care unit is assisting a patient with dementia with bathing. Which nursing action will enhance patient comfort and prevent anxiety?
A. Shifting the focus of the interaction to the 'process of bathing'
B. Washing the face and hair at the beginning of the bath
C. Using music to soothe anxiety and agitation
D. Avoiding towel baths or forms of bathing with which the patient is unfamiliar
Correct answer:
The nurse use music to soothe anxiety and agitation. The nurse should also shift the focus of the interaction from the 'task of bathing' to the needs and abilities of the patient, and focus on comfort, safety, autonomy, and self-esteem, in addition to cleanliness. Wash the face and hair at the end of the bath or at a separate time. Water dripping in the face and having a wet head are often the most upsetting parts of the bathing process for people with dementia. The nurse should also consider methods for bathing aside from showers and tub baths. Towel baths, washing under clothes, and bathing 'body sections' one day at a time, as well as dry shampoo or 'shower cap' shampoos, are additional options.
The nurse in the ED is caring for a man who has returned to the ED 4 days after receiving stitches for a knife wound on his hand. The wound is now infected, so the stitches were removed, and the wound is cleaned and packed with gauze. The ED doctor plans to have the man return tomorrow to remove the packing and resuture the wound. You are aware that the wound will now heal by what means?
A. Late intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. First intention
Correct answer:
Third-intention healing or secondary suture is used for deep wounds that either had not been sutured early or that had the suture break down and are resutured later, which is what has happened in this case. Secondary suture brings the two opposing granulation surfaces back together; however, this usually results in a deeper and wider scar. These wounds are also packed postoperatively with moist gauze and covered with a dry, sterile dressing. Late intention is a term that sounds plausible, but is not used in practice. Second intention is when the wound is left open and the wound is filled with granular tissue. First intention wounds are wounds made aseptically with a minimum of tissue destruction.
A physician has prescribed vasopressin to the client for regulating the reabsorption of water by the kidneys. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform after the administration of vasopressin?
A. Observe for and report any evidence of edema, such as dyspnea.
B. Measure and record the client's abdominal girth every hour.
C. Observe the client for blanching of the skin, abdominal cramps, and nausea.
D. Weigh the client every day to obtain a baseline weight.
Correct answer:
After vasopressin is administered to the client, the nurse should observe the client every 10 to 15 minutes for signs of an excessive dosage, which include blanching of the skin, abdominal cramps, and nausea. After corticotropin is administered to the client, the nurse needs to observe for and report any evidence of edema, such as weight gain, rales, increased pulse or dyspnea, or swollen extremities. If the client is receiving vasopressin for abdominal distention, the nurse needs to auscultate the abdomen every 15 to 30 minutes and measure abdominal girth hourly. The nurse needs to weigh the client to obtain a baseline weight for future comparison before administering vasopressin to the client.
A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is brought to the clinic by a family member. The family member tells the nurse the client has become forgetful, with a limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. What condition is represented by these symptoms?
A. Distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)
B. Candidiasis
C. AIDS dementia complex (ADC)
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Correct answer:
AIDS dementia complex, or ADC, is a neurologic condition that causes the degeneration of the brain, especially in areas that affect mood, cognition, and motor functions. Such clients exhibit forgetfulness, limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. DSP is characterized by abnormal sensations, such as burning and numbness in the feet and later in the hands. Candidiasis is a yeast infection that may develop in the oral, pharyngeal, esophageal, or vaginal cavities or in the folds of the skin. CMV infects the choroid and retinal layers of the eye, leading to blindness, and can also cause ulcers in the esophagus, colitis, diarrhea, pneumonia, and encephalitis.
A client will be receiving a hepatitis B vaccination series prior to employment in a dialysis center. What type of immunity will this provide?
A. Forced immunity
B. Naturally acquired active immunity
C. Passive immunity
D. Artificially acquired active immunity
Correct answer:
Artificially acquired immunity is obtained by receiving a killed or weakened microorganism or toxoid. Passive immunity develops when ready-made antibodies are given to a susceptible person. The antibodies provide immediate but short-lived protection from the invading antigen. Newborns receive passive immunity to some diseases for which their mothers have manufactured antibodies. Naturally acquired active immunity occurs as a direct result of infection by a specific microorganism. An example is the immunity to measles that develops after the initial infection. Not all invading microorganisms produce a response that gives lifelong immunity. There is not a type of immunity called forced immunity.
About these Nursing textbooks medical-surgical questions
Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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