Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questions, set 11
Nursing textbooks · medical-surgical
Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questionsset 11
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the Nursing textbooks exam guide or more Nursing textbooks practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A group insurance plan requires a client to pay a present, fixed fee for healthcare services. What type of insurance plan does the nurse understand the client to have?
A. A preferred provider organization (PPO)
B. A health maintenance organization (HMO)
C. Medicare
D. Medicaid
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — A health maintenance organization (HMO)
An HMO is a group insurance plan in which participants pay a preset, fixed fee in exchange for healthcare services. The fee is not based on the number of services provided but rather is projected to the number of participants and expected services. A PPO operates on the principle that competition can control costs. Acting as agents for health insurance companies, PPOs create a community network of providers who are willing to discount their fees for service in exchange for a steady stream of referred customers. Medicare is for people that are age 65 years and older or disabled. Medicaid is coverage for those clients who are unable to afford healthcare.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a 72-year-old patient who is in cardiac rehabilitation following heart surgery. The patient has been walking on a regular basis for about a week and walks for 15 minutes 3 times a day. The patient states that he is having a cramp-like pain in the legs every time he walks and that the pain gets better when I rest. The patients care plan should address what problem?
A. Decreased mobility related to VTE
B. Acute pain related to intermittent claudication
C. Decreased mobility related to venous insufficiency
D. Acute pain related to vasculitis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Acute pain related to intermittent claudication
Intermittent claudication presents as a muscular, cramp-type pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise or activity and relieved by rest. Patients with peripheral arterial insufficiency often complain of intermittent claudication due to a lack of oxygen to muscle tissue. Venous insufficiency presents as a disorder of venous blood reflux and does not present with cramp-type pain with exercise. Vasculitis is an inflammation of the blood vessels and presents with weakness, fever, and fatigue, but does not present with cramp-type pain with exercise. The pain associated with VTE does not have this clinical presentation.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client with facial burns who is prescribed the open method treatment. What nursing intervention should the nurse perform?
A. Administer a cold sponge bath to the client.
B. Keep the client's room cool and airy.
C. Place a bed cradle or sheets over the client.
D. Place the client on a moist linen sheet.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Place a bed cradle or sheets over the client.
The skin of the client with burn is sensitive to drafts and temperature changes; therefore, a bed cradle or sheets should be placed over the client. The room should be kept warm and humidified, not cool and airy. The client should be placed in isolation in a bed with sterile, dry linen. Whirlpool baths are prescribed to loosen the crust, or eschar, which forms over the wound. Sponge baths are not advisable because particles from the sponge may cause accumulation of debris within the burn wound. Moist linen sheets are not placed on clients anymore due to their cooling effect, and they can lead the client to work hard to maintain proper body temperature.
Question 4
The circulating nurse is plugging in a piece of equipment and notes that the cord is frayed. What action by the nurse is best?
A. Call maintenance for repair.
B. Check the machine before using.
C. Control the piece of equipment.
D. Notify the charge nurse.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Control the piece of equipment.
The circulating nurse is responsible for client safety. If an electrical cord is frayed, the risk of fire or sparking increases. The nurse should obtain a replacement. The nurse should also tag the original equipment for repair as per agency policy. Checking the equipment is not important as the nurse should not even attempt to use it. Calling maintenance or requesting maintenance per facility protocol is important, but first ensure client safety by having a properly working piece of equipment for the procedure about to take place. The charge nurse probably does need to know of the need for equipment repair, but ensuring client safety is the priority.
Question 5
Which of the following is an important element of implementation?
A. Client database
B. Critical thinking
C. Nursing orders
D. Documentation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Documentation
An important element of implementation is documentation. The client database includes all the information obtained from the medical and nursing history. Physical examination and diagnostic studies are not an important element of implementation. Critical thinking is intentional, contemplative, and outcome-directed thinking. Developing good critical thinking skills will make nurses more efficient and effective at resolving situations necessitating multiple interventions. Nursing orders are specific nursing directions so that all healthcare team members understand what to do for the client; therefore, they are not an important element of implementation.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Ten more Nursing textbooks medical-surgical questions
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
Which of the following are appropriate instructions for quadricep-setting exercises?
A. Breathe in and out smoothly during exercises
B. Perform exercises two to three times per hour
C. Perform exercises four to six times a day
D. Hold breath during exercise drills
E. Perform pushups three or four times a day
Correct answer:
Breathing in and out smoothly during quadricep-setting exercises maximizes lung inflation. The patient should perform quadricep-setting exercises two to three times per hour, four to six times a day, or as ordered. The patient should never hold their breath during exercise drills because this places a strain on the heart. Pushups are usually done three or four times a day and involve only the upper body. Dangling for a few minutes is done to adjust to the upright position; dangling for 30 to 60 minutes is impractical for the nurse to supervise and may prove unsafe. The nurse should place the bed in the lowest position or use a footstool for dangling.
A client who had sexual contact with a partner who is HIV+ recently develops flulike symptoms such as a low grade fever, headache, and muscle pain. What does the nurse suspect this client is experiencing?
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia
B. Influenza
C. AIDS
D. Acute retroviral syndrome
Correct answer:
At the time of primary HIV infection, one third to more than one half of those infected develop acute retroviral syndrome, also called acute HIV syndrome, which often is mistaken for flu or some other common illness. Some manifestations include fever; swollen and tender lymph nodes; pharyngitis; rash about the face, trunk, palms, and soles; muscle and joint pain; headache; nausea and vomiting; and diarrhea. In addition, there may be enlargement of the liver and spleen, weight loss, and neurologic symptoms such as visual changes or cognitive and motor involvement. It is too soon after exposure for the client to develop Pneumocystis pneumonia or AIDS.
The nurse is working on the neurologic unit at a local hospital. The nurse has four clients assigned who sustained head injuries as a result of an industrial accident. Which client would the nurse anticipate the physician sending for specialized care?
A. The client with history of seizures
B. The client who was in a bike accident last summer
C. The client who played soccer in college
D. The client whose father has Parkinson's disease
Correct answer:
The client who has history of playing many years of a physical sport such as soccer and use the head to redirect the ball may have had years of injury to the brain. When concussions occur repetitively, even though they may have not shown injury at that time, chronic traumatic encephalopathy may result. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy, which can produce neurodegeneration, will need specialized care. The client who has a history of seizures may have no brain injury. The client who was in a previous accident may have had injury, but it is not of a repetitive nature. The client with a father who has Parkinson's disease will have regular follow-up care.
A nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury from a motorcycle accident. The nurse is instructing on the benefits of stem cell transplantation therapy. Which statement(s) should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply.
A. Cells in the spinal cord may regenerate spontaneously when injured.
B. Stem cells can cause the damaged spinal nerves to repair themselves.
C. Stems cells can be harvested from an individual's own bone marrow.
D. Harvested stem cells can be reimplanted into the area surrounding the injury.
E. Stem cells can replace the damaged nerve cells when they are transplanted.
Correct answer:
When teaching the client about the benefits of stem cell transplantation therapy, the nurse should explain how stem cells are used to treat a spinal cord injury. In particular, the education should emphasize that stem cells are harvested from the client's own bone marrow and can be reimplanted into the area surrounding the injury, replacing the damaged nerve cells when they are transplanted. The spinal cord loses the ability to regenerate when injured, and stem cells replace the injured spinal nerves rather than causing them to repair themselves, so the nurse would be incorrect to include these statements when discussing the therapy with the client.
A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is taking a tricyclic antidepressant. The patient says, 'I don't think I can keep taking these pills. They make me so dizzy, especially when I stand up.' The nurse should implement what intervention?
A. Explain how to manage postural hypotension and educate the patient that side effects go away after several weeks.
B. Tell the patient that the side effects are a minor inconvenience compared with the feelings of depression.
C. Withhold the drug, force oral fluids, and notify the health care provider to examine the patient.
D. Teach the patient how to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer:
Drowsiness, dizziness, and postural hypotension usually subside after the first few weeks of therapy with tricyclic antidepressants. Postural hypotension can be managed by teaching the patient to stay well hydrated and rise slowly. Knowing these facts may be enough to convince the patient to remain medication compliant. The minor inconvenience of side effects as compared with feelings of depression is a convincing reason to remain on the medication. Withholding the drug, forcing oral fluids, and having the health care provider examine the patient are unnecessary steps. Independent nursing action is appropriate. Pursed-lip breathing is irrelevant.
A nurse is providing care to a client recently diagnosed with an aggressive form of cancer. The client asks the nurse about integrative medicine. Which statement should the nurse include in response to the client?
A. Integrative medicine has not been found to be effective in the treatment of disease.
B. Integrative medicine is a combination of conventional medical practice with nontraditional physical and nonphysical approaches to treatment.
C. Integrative medicine is a nonorthodox treatment method with no proven basis for effectiveness at promoting health.
D. Integrative medicine promotes exclusive use of herbal and other dietary supplements to treat disease.
Correct answer:
Integrative medicine is a combination of conventional medical practice with nontraditional physical and nonphysical approaches to treatment for which there is some scientific evidence of safety and effectiveness. It is not exclusively conventional medical practices or alternative therapies. It is not true that integrative medicine has been found to be ineffective in the treatment of diseases. Alternative therapies, not integrative medicine, are nonorthodox treatment methods that have no proven basis for effectiveness at promoting health. Integrative medicine does not promote exclusive use of herbal and other dietary supplements to treat disease.
The nurse is caring for a patient following breast augmentation surgery. Which of the following information should the nurse include in patient teaching?
A. A drain will be in place for 24 hours after the surgery and then removed.
B. Temperature will be monitored every 4 hours postoperatively.
C. A compression dressing will be in place for 5-7 days.
D. Most women can resume normal activities 1 week postoperative.
Correct answer:
The patient's temperature should be monitored. Breast augmentation patients have drains in place in the surgical site to prevent hematoma formation and then removed 2 to 3 days after surgery, or when drainage is less than 20 to 30 mL per day. The drainage must be examined for colour and odour to detect postoperative infection or hemorrhage. A compression dressing is not kept in place for 5-7 days, dressings should be changed as necessary with sterile technique and prescribed. Depending on the extent of the operation, most women can resume normal activities within 2 to 3 weeks. Strenuous exercise may not be appropriate until several weeks later.
A client received 2 units of packed red blood cells while in the hospital with rectal bleeding. Three days after discharge, the client experienced an allergic response and began to itch and break out with hives. What type of reaction does the nurse understand could be occurring?
A. Delayed hypersensitivity response
B. Anaphylactic reaction
C. Sensitization
D. An immediate hypersensitivity response
Correct answer:
A delayed hypersensitivity response may develop over several hours or days, or it may reach maximum severity after repeated exposure. Examples of a delayed hypersensitivity response include a blood transfusion reaction that occurs days to weeks after blood administration, rejection of transplanted tissues, and reaction to a tuberculin skin test. Anaphylaxis is a rapid and profound type I hypersensitivity response. Sensitization is the process by which cellular and chemical events occur after a second or subsequent exposure to an allergen. An immediate hypersensitivity response is due to antibodies interacting with allergens and occurs rapidly.
A nurse is caring for a 55-year-old client with Parkinson's disease who is prescribed entacapone. The nurse would monitor this client for which adverse reaction?
A. Increased hand tremor
B. Constipation
C. Urinary retention
D. Dyskinesia
Correct answer:
The nurse should monitor for dyskinesia, which is an adverse reaction of the COMT inhibitors, in the client. The other adverse reactions include dizziness, hypersinesia, nausea, anorexia, diarrhea, orthostatic hypotension, sleep disorders, excessive dreaming, somnolence, and muscle cramps. A serious, and possibly fatal, adverse reaction that can occur with the administration of tolcapone, one of the COMT inhibitors, is liver failure. Increased hand tremor and constipation are adverse effects associated with the use of dopaminergic drugs. Urinary retention is an adverse reaction associated with the administration of cholinergic blocking drugs.
What method for financing healthcare is based on the ability to keep clients healthy and out of the hospital through periodic screening, health education, and preventive services?
A. Managed care
B. Preferred provider organization
C. Health maintenance organization
D. Point-of-service organization
Correct answer:
Health maintenance organizations strive to keep their costs low and members out of the hospital through periodic screenings, health education, and preventive services. Managed care organizations are insurers who carefully plan and closely supervise the distribution of healthcare services. Preferred provider organizations are a community network of providers who are willing to discount their fees for service in exchange for a steady stream of referral customers. Point-of-service organizations involve a network of providers; clients select a primary care physician within the group who then serves as the gatekeeper for other healthcare services.
About these Nursing textbooks medical-surgical questions
Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questions, set 11 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the Nursing textbooks exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.