NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 8
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 8
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A healthcare professional is preparing to palpate and percuss a patient's abdomen as part of the assessment process. Which of these findings would cause the healthcare professional to immediately discontinue this part of the assessment?
A. The patient states, 'That sounds like it might hurt me.'
B. There is a pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen.
C. The patient has black, tarry stools and anemia.
D. The patient has had an endoscopic procedure two days prior.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — There is a pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen.
A pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen is indicative of a life-threatening aortic aneurysm. Palpating or percussing such an area can potentially cause the aneurysm to rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding and endangering the patient's life. Therefore, the healthcare professional should immediately discontinue the assessment to prevent any harm.\nChoice A is incorrect because the patient expressing concerns about the procedure does not necessarily indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C describes symptoms that should be further investigated but do not pose an immediate threat during abdominal assessment. Choice D, a prior endoscopic procedure, is not a contraindication for palpation or percussion of the abdomen unless there are specific complications or conditions related to the procedure that would require caution.
Question 2
Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?
A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Chronic renal failure (CRF)
Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.
Question 3
Which is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection?
A. Thorough hand hygiene
B. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care
C. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions
D. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Thorough hand hygiene
Thorough hand hygiene is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection as hands are a common source of transmission. Regular and routine hand hygiene helps prevent the movement of potentially infective materials. Wearing gloves and masks is important when providing direct client care to protect both the caregiver and the patient, but it is not as effective as thorough hand hygiene in preventing overall infection spread. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions is necessary for clients with known communicable diseases, but it is not as universally effective in preventing the spread of various infections. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics is not an appropriate measure for controlling the spread of infection as routine use can lead to superinfection and the development of resistant organisms.
Question 4
The nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a lung transplant. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective if the patient makes which statement?
A. I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year.
B. I will stop taking the prednisone if I experience a dry cough.
C. I will not worry if I feel a little short of breath with exercise.
D. I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.
The correct answer is, 'I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.' It is crucial for patients who have undergone a lung transplant to be vigilant about any signs of infection or rejection. A low-grade fever can be an early indicator of such complications, requiring immediate medical attention. While annual follow-up visits are necessary, they are not sufficient for monitoring acute changes in health post-transplant. Stopping prednisone abruptly can lead to rejection and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance. Feeling short of breath with exercise should be reported as it can indicate potential issues. Recognizing and addressing symptoms promptly is key to successful post-transplant care, and in this case, calling the healthcare provider immediately for a fever is the most appropriate action.
Question 5
What is a common error when taking a pulse?
A. Placing the index finger on the radial artery located on the thumb side of a patient's wrist.
B. Noting a pulse as 'weak' when the pulsation disappears upon adding pressure.
C. Counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four.
D. None of the above will cause errors.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four.
The correct answer is counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four. To accurately assess a patient's heart rate or pulse, it is crucial to count the pulse for a full minute. Counting for only 15 seconds and then multiplying by four may result in an inaccurate heart rate calculation. This approach could miss arrhythmias or intermittent pulsations that could be vital indicators of the patient's condition. Placing the index finger on the radial artery, which is located on the thumb side of the patient's wrist, is the correct technique for taking a pulse. Noting a pulse as 'weak' when the pulsation disappears upon adding pressure is a valid observation and not an error in itself. Therefore, the most common error in this scenario is incorrectly calculating the pulse rate by multiplying a 15-second count by four.
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Question 6
A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour
B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath
C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours
D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea
Correct answer:
The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.
What consideration is important when caring for a female Muslim patient?
A. Make eye contact
B. Provide long-sleeved gowns or allow her to use her own
C. Touch while talking
D. Assign male caregivers when possible
Correct answer:
When caring for a female Muslim patient, providing long-sleeved gowns or allowing her to use her own clothing is crucial. Most Muslim women prefer to cover their whole body, even during examinations. Offering long gowns with long sleeves or allowing the patient to use her own clothing respects her cultural and religious preferences. Making eye contact is not a common practice in some Muslim cultures, so it's important to be mindful of this and respect the patient's preferences. Touching while talking may not be culturally appropriate for some Muslim patients, so it's best to avoid it unless necessary. Assigning female caregivers is often preferred to respect the patient's modesty and religious beliefs. If a male caregiver or physician needs to interact with the patient, the patient's husband may request to be present in the room.
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?
A. Decrease in level of consciousness
B. Loss of bladder control
C. Altered sensation to stimuli
D. Emotional lability
Correct answer:
A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.
A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?
A. Anesthesia reaction
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct answer:
In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.
A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?
A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
D. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Correct answer:
Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.
During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
C. Clonidine (Catapres)
D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)
Correct answer:
Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.
To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:
A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode
B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed
C. Administer antidysrhythmics PRN as prescribed
D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest
Correct answer:
Administering stool softeners daily as prescribed is essential to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to a Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intra-abdominal pressure, hinder venous return, and elevate blood pressure, risking cardiac complications in a client recovering from a heart attack. Using a bedside commode might be useful to minimize exertion during toileting but does not directly address the risk of a Valsalva maneuver. Administering antidysrhythmics PRN is not the primary intervention for preventing a Valsalva maneuver; these medications are used to manage dysrhythmias if they occur. Keeping the client on strict bed rest is not the best option as early mobilization is encouraged in post-myocardial infarction recovery to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis and muscle weakness.
The clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the primary healthcare provider has documented a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which sign most likely led the mother to seek healthcare for the infant?
A. Diarrhea
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Regurgitation of feedings
D. Foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools
Correct answer:
Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon, is a congenital anomaly characterized by an absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and other areas of the affected intestine. A key clinical manifestation of Hirschsprung's disease is chronic constipation that starts in the first month of life, leading to pellet-like or ribbon-like stools that have a foul smell. Another sign is the delayed passage or absence of meconium stool in the neonatal period. In addition to foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools, bowel obstruction (especially in the neonatal period), abdominal pain and distention, and failure to thrive are also common clinical manifestations of this disorder. Options A, B, and C are not typically associated with Hirschsprung's disease, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
A patient has suddenly developed shortness of breath and appears to be in significant respiratory distress. After calling the physician and placing the patient on oxygen, which of these actions is the best for the nurse to take when further assessing the patient?
A. Count the patient's respirations.
B. Bilaterally percuss the thorax, noting any differences in percussion tones.
C. Call for a chest x-ray and wait for the results before beginning an assessment.
D. Inspect the thorax for any new masses and bleeding associated with respirations.
Correct answer:
In a situation where a patient is in significant respiratory distress, bilaterally percussing the thorax to note any differences in percussion tones is a crucial nursing intervention. Percussion provides instant feedback regarding changes in underlying tissue density, which can give important clues about the patient's physical status. This hands-on assessment technique is readily available and can be performed promptly. Counting the patient's respirations, while important, may not provide as much detailed information as percussion. Ordering a chest x-ray and waiting for the results can cause a delay in assessing and addressing the patient's immediate needs. Inspecting the thorax for new masses and bleeding, although relevant, may not offer as much real-time information about the patient's condition compared to percussion.
A 30-year-old woman is experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?
A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B. Check for a pulse
C. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit
D. Stay with the woman until help comes
Correct answer:
In a situation where a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to act swiftly. Asking the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit is the most appropriate initial intervention. Many individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry epinephrine auto-injectors, such as epi-pens, which can be life-saving in such situations. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is not indicated as the patient is breathing but short of breath, and CPR is not the first-line intervention for anaphylaxis. Checking for a pulse, though important, is not the initial priority in managing anaphylaxis. Staying with the woman until help arrives is essential for providing support and monitoring her condition, but confirming the availability of an emergency medical kit takes precedence to promptly address the anaphylactic reaction.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 8 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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