NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 32
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 32
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include?
A. Options for smoking cessation
B. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing
C. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk
D. Computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Options for smoking cessation
The most critical information for the nurse to provide to a patient with a significant smoking history is options for smoking cessation. Smoking is the primary cause of lung cancer, making smoking cessation essential in reducing the risk of developing the disease. Annual sputum cytology testing is not a standard screening test for lung cancer; instead, CT scanning is being explored for this purpose. Erlotinib therapy is used in lung cancer treatment but not for preventing tumor risk in individuals without cancer. CT screening for lung cancer is still under investigation and is not primarily aimed at prevention but rather early detection in high-risk individuals.
Question 2
Penny Thornton has had a stroke, or CVA, and is having difficulty eating on her own. Soon, she will be getting some assistive devices for eating meals. Which healthcare worker will be providing Penny with these assistive devices?
A. A physical therapist
B. A speech therapist
C. A social worker
D. An occupational therapist
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — An occupational therapist
An occupational therapist is the healthcare professional responsible for assessing the needs of individuals, like Penny, regarding assistive devices that aid them in their daily activities. In this case, assistive devices for eating, such as weighted plates and specialized utensils, are crucial for helping Penny regain independence in feeding herself. Physical therapists focus more on mobility and movement, speech therapists on communication and swallowing disorders, and social workers on providing emotional and social support. Therefore, the correct choice is the occupational therapist as they specialize in activities of daily living and promoting independence.
Question 3
In a clinic in a primarily African American community, a higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension is noted in patients. To correct this health disparity, what should the nurse do first?
A. Initiate a regular home-visit program by clinic nurses.
B. Schedule teaching sessions about low-salt diets at community events.
C. Assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic.
D. Obtain low-cost antihypertensive drugs using government grant funding.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic.
To address the higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension in the primarily African American community, the nurse should first assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic. Understanding the community's perspective can provide valuable insights into the reasons behind the health disparity. Initiating a regular home-visit program or scheduling teaching sessions about low-salt diets are important interventions but should come after gathering information on community perceptions. Obtaining low-cost antihypertensive drugs is not the initial priority; understanding community perspectives is crucial for developing effective interventions.
Question 4
An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.
Question 5
In a clinic in a primarily African American community, a higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension is noted in patients. To correct this health disparity, what should the nurse do first?
A. Initiate a regular home-visit program by clinic nurses.
B. Schedule teaching sessions about low-salt diets at community events.
C. Assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic.
D. Obtain low-cost antihypertensive drugs using government grant funding.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic.
To address the higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension in the primarily African American community, the nurse should first assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic. Understanding the community's perspective can provide valuable insights into the reasons behind the health disparity. Initiating a regular home-visit program or scheduling teaching sessions about low-salt diets are important interventions but should come after gathering information on community perceptions. Obtaining low-cost antihypertensive drugs is not the initial priority; understanding community perspectives is crucial for developing effective interventions.
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Question 6
An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
Correct answer:
A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.
A 3-year-old child is seen in the health care clinic, and a diagnosis of encopresis is made. The nurse expects to provide teaching about which client problem?
A. Odor
B. Nausea
C. Malaise
D. Diarrhea
Correct answer:
Encopresis is the repeated voluntary or involuntary passage of feces of normal or near-normal consistency in places not appropriate for that purpose according to the individual's own sociocultural setting. Signs of encopresis include evidence of soiled clothing, scratching or rubbing the anal area due to irritation, fecal odor without apparent awareness by the child, and social withdrawal. Teaching about odor is essential to address the issue of encopresis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because encopresis is not typically associated with nausea, malaise, or diarrhea. Therefore, teaching about these symptoms would not be relevant in the context of encopresis.
A couple asks the nurse about risks of several birth control methods. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A. Norplant is safe and can be easily removed.
B. Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers.
C. Depo-Provera is convenient with few side effects.
D. The IUD provides protection against pregnancy and infection.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is that oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers. The use of oral contraceptives in a woman who smokes increases the risk of cardiovascular problems, such as thromboembolic disorders. This is due to the combined effect of smoking and hormonal contraceptives. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risk associated with smoking and oral contraceptives. Norplant's safety and ease of removal, Depo-Provera's convenience with few side effects, and the IUD's protection against pregnancy and infection are important points but not directly related to the increased risks for smokers using oral contraceptives.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?
A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour
Correct answer:
A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.
A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
D. Both A and C
Correct answer:
Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.
When assessing a pulse, it is important to note the rate (number of beats per minute), quality (regular or irregular), and fullness (thread and weak or full and bounding). These aspects provide crucial information about the patient's cardiovascular status. Regularity, as mentioned in option D, is not typically assessed during a pulse check and is not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Choice A is too limited as it overlooks important aspects beyond just the rate. Choice B improves by adding quality but still lacks the fullness aspect. Choice C is the most comprehensive and accurate as it includes all three essential aspects for a thorough pulse assessment.
Which of the following is part of client teaching regarding antiembolism stockings?
A. Instruct the client to roll the top portion of the stocking down if it is too long
B. Stockings are applied with the toes uncovered at the end
C. Measure for thigh-high stockings from the foot to the knee
D. Stockings are to be smooth from end to end without wrinkles
Correct answer:
When educating clients about antiembolism stockings, it is essential to emphasize that the stockings should be smooth from end to end without wrinkles. Wrinkles in the stockings can impede circulation, defeating the purpose of wearing them to prevent blood clot formation. Instructing the client to roll the top portion of the stocking down if it is too long (Choice A) is incorrect as it can create unnecessary pressure points. Stockings should be applied with the toes covered at the end (Choice B) to ensure proper compression. Measuring for thigh-high stockings should be done from the knee to the foot (Choice C) to ensure the correct fit and compression gradient.
Which contraindication should be assessed for prior to administering an immunization to a child?
A. Mild cold symptoms
B. Chronic asthma
C. Depressed immune system
D. Allergy to eggs
Correct answer:
Before administering immunizations to children, it is crucial to assess for contraindications. A depressed immune system, such as that seen in conditions like HIV or due to chemotherapy, is a significant contraindication. Immunizations may not be safe or effective in children with compromised immune systems. Mild cold symptoms, although not ideal, are not a contraindication for routine immunizations. Chronic asthma, while a consideration, is not a direct contraindication for routine immunizations. Allergy to eggs is a contraindication for specific vaccines, such as influenza vaccine that is grown in eggs, but it is not a contraindication for all immunizations.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given
B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
C. Inform radiology that a radioactive glucose preparation is needed
D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects
Correct answer:
For diagnosing pulmonary emboli, spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are commonly used, and contrast media may be given intravenously (IV) during the scan to enhance visualization of blood vessels. Chest x-rays are not typically diagnostic for pulmonary embolism. When preparing for a chest x-ray, the patient needs to undress and remove any metal objects. Bronchoscopy is used for examining the bronchial tree, not for assessing vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are primarily used to detect malignancies, and a radioactive glucose preparation is utilized for this purpose.
A patient states, "I'm not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up."? Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority?
A. Self-esteem-building activities
B. Anxiety self-control measures
C. Sleep enhancement activities
D. Suicide precautions
Correct answer:
The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario should be suicide precautions. The patient's statement indicates suicidal ideation, which poses an immediate risk to their safety. By implementing suicide precautions, the nurse can ensure constant monitoring and intervention to prevent any self-harm. While addressing self-esteem, anxiety, and sleep issues are essential, ensuring the patient's safety by prioritizing suicide precautions is crucial. Self-esteem-building activities, anxiety self-control measures, and sleep enhancement activities are important interventions but should follow the immediate concern of preventing harm from suicidal thoughts.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 32 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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