NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 14
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 14
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
A. Following surgery
B. Upon admission
C. Within 48 hours of discharge
D. Preoperative discussion
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Upon admission
Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
Question 2
The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
C. The infant likely has only one testis.
D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
Question 3
The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
C. The infant likely has only one testis.
D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
Question 4
Examples of preservation of self-integrity include all of the following except:
A. Using assistive equipment to move bariatric clients
B. Participating in wellness programs
C. Accepting the challenge of caring for clients with oppositional beliefs or practices
D. Using hand hygiene and personal protective equipment
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Accepting the challenge of caring for clients with oppositional beliefs or practices
Preservation of self-integrity involves actions that support the nurse's well-being and ethical standards. Using assistive equipment to move bariatric clients and practicing hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are essential aspects of maintaining physical health and safety, contributing to self-care. Participating in wellness programs further enhances self-care by promoting overall well-being. However, accepting the challenge of caring for clients with oppositional beliefs or practices can be emotionally taxing and may compromise a nurse's self-integrity if it leads to significant moral distress or ethical conflicts. In such situations, it is important for nurses to prioritize their well-being and ethical values by seeking alternative solutions or support.
Question 5
What message is a patient sending when displaying the following body language: Slumped shoulders, grimace, and stiff joints?
A. Anger
B. Aloofness
C. Empathy
D. Depression
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Anger
Body language is a powerful form of non-verbal communication that can convey various emotions. In this scenario, the patient's slumped shoulders, grimace, and stiff joints suggest a negative emotional state. Anger is the correct answer because grimacing and tense posture are commonly associated with anger. Choice B, 'Aloofness,' is incorrect as aloofness is more related to disinterest or detachment, which is not indicated by the described body language. Choice C, 'Empathy,' is incorrect as the body language described does not align with expressing understanding or compassion towards others. Choice D, 'Depression,' is incorrect as while depression can also manifest through body language, the specific cues given in the scenario lean more towards anger than depression.
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Question 6
Which of the following is an organizational factor that affects workplace violence directed at nurses?
A. Clients who have short hospital stays
B. The presence of security guards
C. Restricted client areas
D. Understaffing of nursing personnel
Correct answer:
Understaffing of nursing personnel is a critical organizational factor that can contribute to workplace violence directed at nurses. When there are too few nurses on duty due to understaffing, it can lead to delays in care delivery and inadequate attention to clients' needs. This situation can result in heightened frustration, aggression, or violence from clients or their families towards the nursing staff. On the other hand, the presence of security guards (Choice B) may enhance safety in the workplace and deter violence, making it an incorrect choice. Clients who have short hospital stays (Choice A) and restricted client areas (Choice C) are not directly linked to organizational factors that promote workplace violence against nurses, making them incorrect choices.
A client is being instructed on how to use crutches. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?
A. Place the majority of body weight on the axilla.
B. Dry crutch tips with a paper towel if they become wet.
C. Use the crutches for support to lift both feet simultaneously when ascending stairs.
D. Both B and C.
Correct answer:
When instructing a client on how to use crutches for ambulation, it is important to emphasize keeping the crutch tips dry to prevent slipping while bearing weight on them. Moisture on the crutch tips can lead to accidents. Therefore, the correct answer is to dry the crutch tips with a paper towel if they become wet. Choice A, placing the majority of body weight on the axilla, is incorrect as the weight should be borne through the hands, not the axilla, to avoid nerve damage. Choice C, using the crutches to lift both feet simultaneously when ascending stairs, is incorrect as the client should ascend stairs by placing weight on the unaffected leg first, followed by the crutches and then the affected leg. This method provides stability and safety during stair climbing.
In which order should the nurse take the following actions for an older patient with new onset confusion who is normally alert and oriented?
A. Obtain the oxygen saturation, Check the patient's pulse rate, Notify the health care provider, Document the change in status
B. Obtain the oxygen saturation, Check the patient's pulse rate, Document the change in status, Notify the health care provider
C. Document the change in status, Notify the health care provider, Check the patient's pulse rate, Obtain the oxygen saturation
D. Document the change in status, Check the patient's pulse rate, Obtain the oxygen saturation, Notify the health care provider
Correct answer:
The correct order of actions for the nurse in this scenario is to first obtain the oxygen saturation to assess the patient's airway and oxygenation status. Next, checking the patient's pulse rate helps in evaluating circulation. Subsequently, documenting the change in the patient's status is important for maintaining an accurate record of care. Finally, notifying the health care provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and further management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing oxygen saturation should precede checking the pulse rate to address potential physiological causes of confusion. Additionally, documentation should follow patient assessment and notification of the healthcare provider for appropriate record-keeping and communication.
A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?
A. All striated muscles
B. The cerebellum
C. The kidneys
D. The leg bones
Correct answer:
Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.
When supporting the psychosocial needs of a client experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Read the client's discharge instructions well in advance of dismissal
B. Provide medications to reduce nausea and vomiting
C. Give simple instructions about self-care while in the hospital
D. Determine the levels of support from significant others
Correct answer:
When a client is experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, addressing their psychosocial needs is crucial. One effective intervention is to determine the levels of support from significant others. This involves assessing the family, spouse, or friends who can provide help and support to the client when healthcare providers are not present. By identifying and organizing these resources, the nurse can help alleviate fears about the future, prepare caregivers for the client's needs, and facilitate a smoother transition for the client upon discharge. Reading discharge instructions, providing medications, or giving self-care instructions, although important, do not directly address the psychosocial needs of the client during this challenging time.
Signs and symptoms of stroke may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm, or leg.
B. Sudden confusion.
C. Sudden headache with no known cause.
D. Hypotension.
Correct answer:
Hypotension is not a typical sign or symptom of an acute stroke. The correct signs and symptoms of a stroke include sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm, or leg, sudden confusion, and a sudden headache with no known cause. Hypotension, which refers to low blood pressure, is not a common indicator of a stroke. It is important to differentiate between hypotension and hypertension in the context of stroke symptoms, as hypertension (high blood pressure) is actually a risk factor for strokes. Sudden weakness, numbness, confusion, and headache are signs associated with a stroke due to a disruption in blood flow to the brain. Hypotension, on the other hand, primarily indicates low blood pressure and is not directly linked to the typical presentation of a stroke.
Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?
A. Septic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Cardiogenic shock
Correct answer:
Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.
Which of the following is an example of restorative care?
A. A nurse teaches a new mother how to breastfeed her infant
B. A nurse helps a client with developing a bladder-retraining program
C. A nurse places an allergy wristband on a client's wrist to notify other providers of potential reactions
D. A nurse contacts the family of a client to tell them he will be out of surgery soon
Correct answer:
Restorative care involves assisting clients in regaining or maintaining their highest possible level of function. This type of care focuses on promoting self-care and independence by helping clients perform activities that enhance their functional abilities. In this scenario, a nurse who assists a client with developing a bladder-retraining program is engaging in restorative care by helping the client regain bladder function. Choices A, C, and D do not represent restorative care. Teaching a new mother how to breastfeed her infant (Choice A) is an example of educative care, placing an allergy wristband (Choice C) is a safety measure, and contacting a client's family to update them on surgery (Choice D) is related to communication and support, not restorative care.
While performing the physical examination, why does the nurse share information and briefly teach the patient?
A. To help the patient feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation
B. To build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner
C. To assist the patient in understanding his or her disease process and treatment modalities
D. To aid the patient in identifying questions about his or her disease and potential areas of needed education
Correct answer:
Sharing information and briefly teaching the patient during a physical examination helps build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner. This approach gives the patient a sense of control in a situation that can often be overwhelming. While sharing information may make the patient feel more comfortable, the primary goal is to enhance the patient's confidence in the examiner. Providing information does not necessarily directly assist the patient in understanding their disease process and treatment modalities, as this may require a more in-depth explanation. The main focus is on establishing a trusting relationship and empowering the patient during the examination, rather than solely aiding in identifying questions or areas needing education.
A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurse's most appropriate action to promote airway clearance?
A. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing.
B. Teach the patient about the need for fluid intake.
C. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula.
D. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.
Correct answer:
Assisting the patient to splint the chest when coughing is the most appropriate action to promote airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia, rhonchi, and thick sputum. Splinting the chest helps reduce pain during coughing and increases the effectiveness of clearing secretions. Teaching the patient about the need for fluid intake is important as it helps liquefy secretions, aiding in easier clearance. Encouraging the patient to wear a nasal oxygen cannula may improve gas exchange but does not directly promote airway clearance. Instructing the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique is beneficial for improving gas exchange in patients with COPD but does not directly aid in airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia and thick sputum.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 14 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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