NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 51
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 51
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.
Question 2
The healthcare provider is assessing the mental status of a client admitted with possible organic brain disorder. Which of these questions will best assess the function of the client's recent memory?
A. Name the year. What season is this? (pause for answer after each question)
B. Subtract 7 from 100 and then subtract 7 from that. (pause for answer) Now continue to subtract 7 from the new number.
C. I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen.
D. What is this on my wrist? (point to your watch) Then ask, What is the purpose of it?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Subtract 7 from 100 and then subtract 7 from that. (pause for answer) Now continue to subtract 7 from the new number.
The correct answer is to ask the client to perform a calculation that involves working memory and processing skills. This question not only assesses the recent memory but also evaluates attention and executive functioning. The choice 'I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen' assesses immediate recall rather than recent memory. Asking about the current year or season tests orientation rather than recent memory. Inquiring about the watch and its purpose assesses comprehension and judgment rather than recent memory.
Question 3
A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this?
A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously
B. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously
C. Asymptomatic diverticulosis
D. Crohn's disease in remission
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — A history of hepatitis C five years previously
A history of hepatitis C five years previously would prevent a donor from donating blood for transfusion. Hepatitis C is a viral infection transmitted through bodily fluids, such as blood, causing inflammation of the liver. Patients with hepatitis C may not donate blood for transfusion due to the high risk of infection in the recipient. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously, asymptomatic diverticulosis, and Crohn's disease in remission are not contraindications for blood donation as they do not pose a risk of transmitting infections to the recipient.
Question 4
A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.
Question 5
A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.
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Question 6
A 34-year-old patient with chronic hepatitis C infection has several medications prescribed. Which medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration?
A. Ribavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bid
B. Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly
C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg PO every 4 hours PRN itching
D. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) 50 mg PO every 6 hours PRN nausea
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly. Pegylated ?-interferon is typically administered once weekly, not daily. Therefore, this medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration to ensure the correct dosing frequency. Ribavirin, choice A, is appropriate for chronic hepatitis C treatment. Choices C and D, Diphenhydramine and Dimenhydrinate, are commonly used for symptomatic relief in patients with hepatitis C and do not require further discussion with the healthcare provider in this context.
The nurse is caring for a post-surgical client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis. Which intervention is an effective preventive measure?
A. Use elastic stockings continuously
B. Encourage range of motion and ambulation
C. Massage the legs twice daily
D. Place pillows under the knees
Correct answer:
Encouraging range of motion and ambulation is an effective preventive measure for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical clients. Mobility helps improve blood circulation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Elastic stockings help prevent blood pooling and clotting in the legs by providing external pressure to support venous return. Massaging the legs twice daily may help with circulation but is not as effective as promoting movement and ambulation. Placing pillows under the knees is a comfort measure and does not directly address the prevention of deep vein thrombosis.
Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?
A. Tubercle
B. Tuberosity
C. Condyle
D. Trochanter
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.
An 85-year-old client is diagnosed with hypernatremia due to lack of fluid intake and dehydration. The nurse knows that symptoms of hypernatremia include:
A. Lack of thirst
B. Pale skin
C. Hypertension
D. Swollen tongue
Correct answer:
Hypernatremia among elderly clients can result from dehydration and insufficient fluid intake, leading to sodium levels above 145 mEq/L. Common symptoms of hypernatremia include mental status changes, a thick or swollen tongue, excessive thirst, and flushed skin. Choice A, 'Lack of thirst,' is incorrect as hypernatremia typically presents with excessive thirst. Choice B, 'Pale skin,' is not a typical symptom of hypernatremia. Choice C, 'Hypertension,' is not a direct symptom of hypernatremia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like hypertension itself.
A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?
A. Tactile hallucinations
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity
D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices
Correct answer:
Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.
While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, the nurse observes that the patient's SpO2 drops from 93% to 88% while the patient is ambulating in the hallway. What is the priority action of the nurse?
A. Notify the healthcare provider
B. Document the response to exercise
C. Administer the PRN supplemental O2
D. Encourage the patient to pace activity
Correct answer:
The drop in SpO2 to 88% indicates that the patient is hypoxemic and needs supplemental oxygen when exercising. Administering PRN supplemental oxygen is the priority action to correct the hypoxemia and ensure adequate oxygenation during activity. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stabilizing the patient's oxygen levels. Documenting the response to exercise is important but secondary to addressing the immediate hypoxemia. Encouraging the patient to pace activity is not sufficient to address the acute drop in SpO2 and provide the necessary oxygen support.
You are caring for Thomas N., a 77-year-old man with edema in his legs and a fluid restriction. You have been assigned to weigh him daily. Based on these symptoms and the care he is receiving, what disorder is he most likely affected by?
A. Diabetes
B. Dementia
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Contiguous heart disease
Correct answer:
Thomas N.'s symptoms of edema in his legs and fluid restriction point towards congestive heart failure (CHF) rather than dementia or diabetes. In CHF, patients often present with dependent edema in their legs due to excessive blood volume, leading to fluid intake restrictions and a low-salt diet. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in CHF to assess fluid retention or loss. Diabetes primarily affects blood sugar levels, dementia is a cognitive disorder, and 'Contiguous heart disease' is not a recognized medical term, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.
During a physical exam, a healthcare professional assisting a client suspected of having meningitis bends the client's leg at the hip to a 90-degree angle. When attempting to extend the leg at the knee, the client experiences severe pain. What type of test is being performed?
A. Brudzinski's sign
B. Romberg's sign
C. Kernig's sign
D. Babinski's sign
Correct answer:
The healthcare professional is performing Kernig's sign, a test for meningeal irritation often seen in meningitis cases. Kernig's sign involves bending the client's leg at a 90-degree angle at the hip and then attempting to extend the leg at the knee. Severe pain during this maneuver indicates a positive Kernig's sign, suggesting irritation of the meningeal membranes. Brudzinski's sign involves flexing the neck causing involuntary flexion of the hips and knees; Romberg's sign assesses balance and proprioception; Babinski's sign checks for abnormal reflexes in the foot.
Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.
Which of the following is an example of intrapersonal conflict?
A. A nurse feels guilty when she administers essential medication that causes a client to have nausea and vomiting
B. A nurse is called to testify in court about a client she cared for three years ago
C. A nurse feels guilty for working overtime
D. A nurse faces a conflict with a colleague over patient care decisions
Correct answer:
Intrapersonal conflict involves negative feelings or frustrations within oneself. It may be related to decisions or actions that clash with personal morals or beliefs. Choice A is the correct answer because the nurse is experiencing guilt due to administering medication that causes a client to have negative side effects, which reflects an internal struggle. Choices B, C, and D do not represent intrapersonal conflict. Choice B involves a legal obligation, Choice C is related to external factors like working overtime, and Choice D pertains to a conflict with a colleague.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 51 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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