You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?
A. Complaints of double vision
B. Complaints of halos around lights
C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg
D. Soft globe on palpation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Complaints of halos around lights
When assessing a client with glaucoma, a common finding is complaints of halos around lights. Other symptoms of glaucoma include loss of peripheral vision or blind spots, reddened sclera, firm globe, decreased accommodation, and occasional eye pain. Glaucoma may be asymptomatic until permanent damage to the optic nerve and retina occurs. Double vision is not a typical symptom of glaucoma. In terms of intraocular pressure, normal levels range from 10 to 21 mm Hg, making an intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg within the normal range. A soft globe on palpation is not a typical finding in glaucoma.
Question 2
The nurse observes bilateral bruises on the arms of an elderly client in a long-term care facility. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask this client?
A. "How did you get those bruises?"?
B. "Did someone grab you by your arms?"?
C. "Do you fall often?"?
D. "What did you bump against?"?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "Did someone grab you by your arms?"?
The correct answer is asking, "Did someone grab you by your arms?"? This question is direct and addresses the possibility of abuse, which is crucial when dealing with suspected abuse cases. It is important to ask direct questions in a sensitive and non-accusatory manner to gather information. Choice A is too general and may not prompt a disclosure of abuse. Choice C assumes falling as the cause without addressing abuse directly. Choice D is vague and does not specifically inquire about potential abuse, making it less effective in identifying abuse cases compared to the correct choice.
Question 3
A woman asks, "How much alcohol can I safely drink while pregnant?"? The nurse's best response is:
A. "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."?
B. "Consuming one or two beers or glasses of wine a day is considered safe for a healthy pregnant woman."?
C. "Drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is the only harmful type of drinking during pregnancy."?
D. "You can have a drink to help you relax and get to sleep at night."?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."?
The correct answer is, "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."? It is crucial for pregnant women to avoid alcohol as there is no known safe amount during pregnancy. Consuming any amount of alcohol can harm the developing fetus and increase the risk of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition characterized by mental and physical abnormalities in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide misleading information that can potentially harm the fetus. Pregnant women should abstain from alcohol to ensure the health and well-being of their baby.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:
A. elevated blood pressure.
B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
C. elevated pulse rate.
D. decreased temperature.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.
Question 5
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
A. naloxone (Narcan).
B. labetalol (Normodyne).
C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
D. thiothixene (Navane).
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — naloxone (Narcan).
When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.
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Question 6
When assisting a client in gaining insight into anxiety, what should the nurse do?
A. Help the client relate anxiety to specific triggers.
B. Ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.
C. Instruct the client to practice relaxation techniques.
D. Confront the client's resistive behavior.
Correct answer:
To assist a client in gaining insight into anxiety, it is crucial to identify triggers or events that lead to increased anxiety. This approach helps the client recognize causal factors contributing to their anxiety, promoting self-awareness and understanding. Choice A is incorrect because it should focus on triggers rather than specific behaviors. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes managing anxiety through relaxation techniques rather than understanding its roots. Choice D is incorrect as it addresses resistive behavior rather than exploring the causes of anxiety.
The nurse is assessing an elder whom the nurse suspects is being physically abused. The most important question for the nurse to ask is:
A. "How much money do you keep around the house?"?
B. "Who provides your physical care?"?
C. "How close does your nearest relative live?"?
D. "What form of transportation do you use?"?
Correct answer:
The most important question for the nurse to ask when suspecting elder abuse is 'Who provides your physical care?' This question is crucial as the primary caregiver, who is often the abuser in cases of elder abuse, lives with the client. Research has shown that spouses and adult children are the most common abusers. By inquiring about the provider of physical care, the nurse can assess the potential abuser's proximity to the elder. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent to identifying the primary caregiver, who is more likely to be the abuser.
During the work phase of the nurse-client relationship, the client says to her primary nurse, "You think that I could walk if I wanted to, don't you?"? What is the best response by the nurse?
A. "Yes, if you really wanted to, you could."?
B. "Tell me why you're concerned about what I think."?
C. "Do you think you could walk if you wanted to?"?
D. "I think you're unable to walk now, whatever the cause."?
Correct answer:
This response answers the question honestly and nonjudgmentally and helps to preserve the client's self-esteem. The nurse acknowledges the client's current inability to walk without attributing it to the client's desire. Choice A provides a positive but unrealistic statement that may diminish the client's self-esteem by implying a lack of effort. Choice B deflects the client's question and does not address the underlying concern. Choice C may increase the client's anxiety by suggesting unresolved psychological conflicts related to walking.
A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:
A. affects both genders equally.
B. is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.
C. is usually diagnosed in early adulthood.
D. does not have a clear protective hormone effect delaying diagnosis.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.
A hospitalized client has just been informed that he has terminal cancer. He says to the nurse, 'There must be some mistake in the diagnosis.' The nurse determines that the client is demonstrating which of the following?
A. denial
B. anger
C. bargaining
D. acceptance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is denial. In this scenario, the client's statement indicates denial, which is a common reaction in Kübler-Ross's Stages of Grieving. Denial involves the refusal to accept or believe that a loss, such as a terminal illness diagnosis, is happening. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Anger involves feelings of resentment or frustration; Bargaining is an attempt to negotiate or make deals to avoid the situation; Acceptance is the final stage where the individual comes to terms with the reality of the situation.
James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:
A. denial
B. suppression
C. displacement
D. fantasy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'displacement.' Displacement is a defense mechanism where emotions or impulses are transferred from their original source to a substitute target. In this scenario, James is displacing his anger from his teacher onto the dog.
Choice A, 'denial,' involves refusing to acknowledge an unpleasant reality. Choice B, 'suppression,' is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts out of awareness. Choice D, 'fantasy,' refers to imagining scenarios that fulfill one's desires but are not based in reality.
Social support systems include all of the following except:
A. call-in help lines
B. emotional assistance provided by others
C. community support groups
D. use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management
Correct answer:
The correct answer is the use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management. Social support systems involve external sources of support from others or the community. Call-in help lines, emotional assistance provided by others, and community support groups all represent social support systems where individuals can seek help and assistance from outside sources. On the other hand, the use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management refers to individual strategies rather than external social support.
Mrs. Owens is the 81-year-old mother of Jonathan, who is 54 years old. Jonathan has had schizophrenia since he was 16 years old. Which of Mrs. Owens's concerns is likely to predominate?
A. "Will my retirement funds outlast me?"?
B. "Who will handle my funeral arrangements?"?
C. "What will become of Jonathan when I am gone?"?
D. "How can I communicate effectively with Jonathan's physician?"?
Correct answer:
The most prominent concern for Mrs. Owens is likely what will happen to her son, Jonathan, after she passes away. While retirement fund sustainability is important, it is not likely to be her primary concern. Funeral arrangements, although significant, are secondary to the welfare of her son with schizophrenia. The question of how to communicate with Jonathan's physician is less likely to be a predominant concern since Mrs. Owens has likely already addressed this issue over the 38 years of managing her son's care.
All of the following are common reasons that nurses are reluctant to delegate except:
A. lack of self-confidence
B. desire to maintain authority
C. confidence in subordinate
D. getting trapped in the 'I can do it better myself' mindset
Correct answer:
If a delegator has confidence in their subordinates and believes a task will be performed correctly, they are more likely to delegate. Reasons nurses may be reluctant to delegate include their own lack of self-confidence, the desire to maintain authority, and getting trapped in the 'I can do it better myself' mindset. Therefore, 'confidence in subordinate' is the exception as it actually encourages delegation. The other choices are common barriers to delegation in healthcare settings.
James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:
A. denial
B. suppression
C. displacement
D. fantasy
Correct answer:
Displacement is the transference of emotions, such as anger, to a substitute target that may be less threatening. In this scenario, James redirects his anger from the teacher to the dog. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Suppression is consciously putting aside unwanted thoughts or feelings. Fantasy involves imagining unrealistic scenarios. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is displacement as James displaces his anger towards the dog.
NCLEX-PN mental health practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.