You review anatomy, chemistry, and scientific reasoning the way TEAS 7 reports the science line. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the ATI TEAS 7 exam guide or more ATI TEAS 7 practice questions.
Five science questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following statements is not true about the relationship between the gastrointestinal system and the endocrine system?
A. Hormones signal to your body whether you are hungry or full.
B. Hormones regulate the amount of glucose in your blood.
C. Hormones stimulate digestive enzymes and peristalsis when you've eaten and need to digest food.
D. All of the above are true.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — All of the above are true.
The gastrointestinal system and the endocrine system are closely interconnected. Hormones released by the endocrine system play a crucial role in signaling hunger or fullness, regulating blood glucose levels, and stimulating digestive processes like enzyme secretion and peristalsis for efficient food digestion. Option D, stating 'All of the above are true,' is incorrect in the context of the question because there is a need to identify the statement that is not true about the relationship between the gastrointestinal system and the endocrine system. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements that reflect the close relationship and interactions between the gastrointestinal and endocrine systems.
Question 2
What is the primary function of coronary arteries?
A. Delivering oxygenated blood throughout the body.
B. Supplying oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself.
C. Carrying deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
D. Regulating blood pressure through vasoconstriction and vasodilation.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Supplying oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself.
The primary function of coronary arteries is to supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself. The heart is a muscle that needs a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to function properly. Coronary arteries branch off the aorta and specifically deliver oxygenated blood to the heart muscle, ensuring its proper function. Choice A is incorrect because coronary arteries do not deliver blood throughout the entire body but specifically to the heart. Choice C is incorrect as coronary arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. Choice D is incorrect as the primary function of the coronary arteries is not to regulate blood pressure but rather to provide oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.
Question 3
Which of the following is the primary physical barrier the body uses to prevent infection?
A. mucus membranes
B. stomach acid
C. skin
D. urine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — skin
The correct answer is 'C: skin.' The skin is the primary physical barrier the body uses to prevent infection. It acts as a protective shield that prevents harmful microorganisms from entering the body. The outer layer of the skin, known as the epidermis, acts as a tough physical barrier that blocks the entry of pathogens. Additionally, the skin has special immune cells that can help fight off invaders that manage to breach the physical barrier. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While mucous membranes, stomach acid, and urine play important roles in the body's defense against pathogens, the primary physical barrier is the skin, which covers the entire body and provides a robust protective barrier.
Question 4
Which of the following is an example of the location and function of cartilage in the body?
A. The dense connective tissue that makes up the majority of the structural skeleton
B. The supportive pads that provide cushioning at joints, such as between the vertebrae of the spinal cord
C. The connective structure made of fibrous collagen that connects muscles and bones
D. The layer beneath the skin and on the outside of internal organs that provides cushioning and protection
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The supportive pads that provide cushioning at joints, such as between the vertebrae of the spinal cord
Cartilage is a type of flexible connective tissue that acts as supportive pads providing cushioning at joints, like those found between the vertebrae of the spine. This specific function of cartilage helps in reducing friction and absorbing shock in these areas, contributing to joint flexibility and protection. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the function and location of cartilage in the body. Option A incorrectly refers to dense connective tissue, which is different from cartilage. Option C describes tendons or ligaments, which are not cartilage. Option D refers to adipose tissue, which is a type of connective tissue that stores fat and provides insulation, but it is not cartilage.
Question 5
In which type of cell would you expect to find a high concentration of lysosomes?
A. Cardiac cells
B. Glandular cells
C. Immune cells
D. Neurons
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Immune cells
The correct answer is C: Immune cells. Immune cells, such as macrophages, contain many lysosomes for breaking down pathogens. Lysosomes are organelles responsible for digestion and waste removal within the cell, and immune cells require a high concentration of lysosomes to aid in their defense mechanisms against pathogens. Choice A, Cardiac cells, is incorrect because lysosomes are not primarily abundant in cardiac cells. Choice B, Glandular cells, is incorrect as well since lysosomes are not specifically concentrated in glandular cells. Choice D, Neurons, is also incorrect because while lysosomes are present in neurons, they are not typically found in high concentrations compared to immune cells.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
How does the amplitude of a wave relate to its intensity or loudness?
A. They are inversely proportional.
B. They are directly proportional.
C. They have no relationship.
D. Amplitude affects frequency, not intensity.
Correct answer:
The amplitude of a wave is directly related to its intensity or loudness. In general, the larger the amplitude of a wave, the greater its intensity or loudness. This relationship is due to the fact that the amplitude of a wave represents the maximum displacement of particles in the medium from their rest position. The greater the displacement, the more energy the wave carries, leading to higher intensity or louder sound. Choice A is incorrect because the relationship between amplitude and intensity is direct, not inverse. Choice C is incorrect as there is a clear relationship between amplitude and intensity. Choice D is incorrect as amplitude primarily affects intensity or loudness, not frequency.
When two coherent light waves with a slight phase difference interfere, what determines the resulting intensity of the combined wave?
A. The individual intensities of the waves
B. The wavelength of the waves
C. The distance between the waves
D. The color of the waves
Correct answer:
The resulting intensity of the combined wave is determined by the individual intensities of the waves. When two coherent light waves interfere, the amplitudes of the waves add up, and the resulting intensity is proportional to the square of the sum of the individual amplitudes. Therefore, the individual intensities of the waves play a crucial role in determining the resulting intensity of the combined wave. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The wavelength of the waves and the distance between the waves do affect interference patterns but not the resulting intensity. The color of the waves is determined by the wavelength and does not directly determine the resulting intensity of the combined wave.
What is a gene, and what is the relationship between genes, genotype, and phenotype?
A. A gene is a sequence of amino acids; genes make up proteins; genotype determines phenotype
B. A gene is a portion of DNA; genes determine traits; genotype is the genetic makeup; phenotype is the physical manifestation
C. A gene is a protein; proteins determine traits; genotype is the set of all genes
D. A gene is a lipid; lipids determine traits; phenotype is the physical manifestation
Correct answer:
A gene is a portion of DNA that contains the instructions for a specific trait. Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism, encompassing all its genes. Phenotype, on the other hand, is the observable physical manifestation resulting from the interaction between an organism's genotype and environmental factors. Choice A is incorrect because genes do not consist of amino acids directly; they are sequences of nucleotides. Choice C is incorrect as genes do not determine traits directly but provide the instructions for proteins that may influence traits. Choice D is incorrect as genes are not lipids, and lipids do not determine traits; they are a type of biomolecule with different functions.
What do isotopes of the same element have in common?
A. Identical number of protons and neutrons.
B. Identical chemical properties.
C. Identical number of electrons.
D. Identical mass number.
Correct answer:
Isotopes of the same element have the same number of protons, which defines the element, but different numbers of neutrons. This difference in neutron count results in isotopes of the same element having different mass numbers. Chemical properties are determined by the arrangement of electrons in an atom, so isotopes of the same element may exhibit slightly different chemical behaviors due to different neutron numbers. The number of electrons can vary in isotopes, affecting their charge. However, the mass number, which is the sum of protons and neutrons, is the same for isotopes of the same element. Therefore, the correct answer is that isotopes of the same element share an identical mass number.
The bones of the skull are classified as flat bones. Flat bones are thin, flattened, and usually curved bones that provide protection to underlying organs and have a large surface area for muscle attachment. The skull bones fit this description as they protect the brain and have a broad surface for muscle attachment. Choice A (Long bones), B (Short bones), and D (Irregular bones) are incorrect classifications. Long bones are typically found in the extremities like the arms and legs, short bones are cube-shaped like the wrist and ankle bones, and irregular bones have complex shapes like the vertebrae. These classifications do not describe the bones of the skull, which are predominantly flat bones.
What type of bond forms between elements when they share electrons?
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Hydrogen bond
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Covalent bond. In a covalent bond, atoms share electrons, leading to the creation of a strong attraction that holds them together. This type of bond is characterized by the sharing of electron pairs between atoms, resulting in the formation of molecules. Choice B, Ionic bond, involves the transfer of electrons from one atom to another, creating charged ions that attract each other. Choice C, Metallic bond, refers to the sharing of electrons among a sea of delocalized electrons in a metal structure. Choice D, Hydrogen bond, is a weak electrostatic attraction between a hydrogen atom and an electronegative atom like oxygen or nitrogen, not involving the sharing of electrons.
In the context of cholesterol levels, LDL cholesterol is often referred to as:
A. HDL or "good" cholesterol.
B. LDL or "bad" cholesterol.
C. Total cholesterol, encompassing both LDL and HDL.
D. VLDL, a type of triglyceride transported in the bloodstream.
Correct answer:
LDL cholesterol is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because high levels of LDL can lead to plaque buildup in the arteries, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke. LDL cholesterol is considered harmful as it contributes to the formation of plaque in blood vessels, whereas HDL cholesterol helps remove LDL from the arteries. Choice A is incorrect because HDL is known as "good" cholesterol, which helps remove LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to total cholesterol, which includes LDL, HDL, and other lipids. Choice D is incorrect as VLDL is a different type of lipoprotein that carries triglycerides and is not specifically related to LDL cholesterol.
What is the relationship between the frequency and period of a wave?
A. They are unrelated
B. Frequency = Period
C. Frequency = 1/Period
D. Period = 1/Frequency
Correct answer:
The correct relationship between frequency and period of a wave is that Period = 1/Frequency. This relationship indicates that the period of a wave is the reciprocal of its frequency. Frequency refers to the number of complete cycles of a wave occurring in a unit of time, while the period is the time taken for one complete cycle of the wave to occur. As frequency and period are inversely related, the correct formula to express this relationship is Period = 1/Frequency. Choice A is incorrect as frequency and period are related. Choice B is incorrect as frequency and period are not equal. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests that frequency is directly proportional to period, which is not the case.
Which of the following glands is responsible for regulating the body's metabolism?
A. Pituitary gland
B. Thyroid gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Pineal gland
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Thyroid gland. The thyroid gland is responsible for regulating the body's metabolism by producing hormones like thyroxine. These hormones play a key role in controlling the body's metabolic rate and energy production. Choice A, the pituitary gland, is often referred to as the 'master gland' but is not primarily responsible for regulating metabolism. Choice C, the adrenal gland, is involved in producing hormones like adrenaline and cortisol, which are crucial for the body's stress response but not primarily for metabolism. Choice D, the pineal gland, is responsible for producing melatonin, which regulates sleep-wake cycles and not directly related to metabolic regulation.
In experimental design, which variable is measured as a possible effect and is plotted on the y-axis?
A. Independent, x
B. Independent, y
C. Dependent, x
D. Dependent, y
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: 'Dependent, y.' In experimental design, the dependent variable is the outcome that is being measured or observed as a result of changes in the independent variable. It is typically plotted on the y-axis of a graph to represent the effect or response to the changes in the independent variable. Choice A 'Independent, x' is incorrect because the independent variable is the variable manipulated by the experimenter and is usually plotted on the x-axis. Choice B 'Independent, y' is incorrect as the independent variable is not plotted on the y-axis. Choice C 'Dependent, x' is incorrect because the dependent variable is not typically plotted on the x-axis in experimental design.
ATI TEAS 7 science practice questions, set 43 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the ATI TEAS 7 exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
