ATI TEAS 7 science practice questions, set 4

ATI TEAS 7 · science

ATI TEAS 7 science practice questions set 4

You review anatomy, chemistry, and scientific reasoning the way TEAS 7 reports the science line. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the ATI TEAS 7 exam guide or more ATI TEAS 7 practice questions.

Five science questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The neutral theory of molecular evolution proposes that:

  1. A. Most mutations in DNA are selectively neutral and do not affect an organism's fitness.
  2. B. All mutations are beneficial and contribute to the adaptation of a population.
  3. C. The rate of evolution is primarily driven by strong directional selection pressures.
  4. D. Genetic drift plays a negligible role in shaping genetic variation within populations.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Most mutations in DNA are selectively neutral and do not affect an organism's fitness.

Rationale: A) The neutral theory of molecular evolution, proposed by Motoo Kimura in the 1960s, suggests that the majority of mutations that occur in DNA are selectively neutral, meaning they do not have a significant impact on an organism's fitness. These neutral mutations are not subject to natural selection and are allowed to accumulate in populations over time. This theory helps explain the high levels of genetic variation observed within populations. B) Option B is incorrect because not all mutations are beneficial. Mutations can be neutral, harmful, or beneficial, and the neutral theory specifically focuses on the idea that many mutations are neutral in their effects. C) Option C is incorrect because the neutral theory suggests that evolution is not primarily driven by strong directional selection pressures. Instead, it emphasizes the role of genetic drift and the accumulation of neutral mutations in shaping genetic variation. D) Option D is incorrect because

Question 2

Identify the function NOT attributed to the lymphatic system.

  1. A. Fluid drainage from tissues
  2. B. Immune response via white blood cell production
  3. C. Nutrient transport throughout the body
  4. D. Waste removal through lymph nodes
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Nutrient transport throughout the body

A) Fluid drainage from tissues: This function is attributed to the lymphatic system. Lymphatic vessels collect excess fluid from tissues and return it to the bloodstream. B) Immune response via white blood cell production: The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in the body's immune response by producing and transporting white blood cells, such as lymphocytes, which help fight infections. C) Nutrient transport throughout the body: Nutrient transport is primarily carried out by the circulatory system (blood vessels), not the lymphatic system. The circulatory system transports nutrients, oxygen, and hormones to cells and removes waste products. D) Waste removal through lymph nodes: The lymphatic system helps remove waste and toxins from the body by filtering lymph through lymph nodes, where harmful substances are trapped and destroyed by immune cells. Therefore, the function NOT attributed to the lymphatic system is C) Nutrient transport throughout the body.

Question 3

What checkpoint mechanism ensures all chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers before anaphase begins?

  1. A. Prometaphase
  2. B. Metaphase
  3. C. Cyclin degradation
  4. D. Sister chromatid cohesion
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Prometaphase

A) Prometaphase is the correct answer because it is the stage of mitosis where all chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers before anaphase begins. During prometaphase, the nuclear envelope breaks down, allowing the spindle fibers to attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes. This attachment is necessary for proper chromosome alignment and segregation during anaphase. B) Metaphase is incorrect because it is the stage where chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate but do not necessarily have all spindle fibers attached. C) Cyclin degradation is incorrect because it is a regulatory mechanism that controls the progression of the cell cycle but is not specifically related to ensuring all chromosomes are attached to spindle fibers. D) Sister chromatid cohesion is incorrect because it refers to the physical connection between sister chromatids that is maintained until anaphase, but it does not ensure that all chromosomes are attached to spindle fibers.

Question 4

The Human Genome Project is a worldwide research project launched in 1990 to map the entire human genome. Although the Project was faced with the monumental challenge of analyzing tons of data, its objective was completed in 2003, two years ahead of its deadline. Which of the following inventions likely had the greatest impact on this project?

  1. A. The sonogram
  2. B. X-ray diffraction
  3. C. The microprocessor
  4. D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — The microprocessor

The microprocessor, a key component of modern computers, played a crucial role in the success of the Human Genome Project. The ability of microprocessors to process vast amounts of data quickly and efficiently allowed scientists to analyze the massive amounts of genetic information generated by the project. This technological advancement significantly accelerated the pace of genome sequencing and data analysis, ultimately leading to the completion of the project ahead of schedule. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The sonogram is used for imaging in medical diagnostics, X-ray diffraction is a technique for studying the structure of materials at the atomic level, and Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a medical imaging technique that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of the body. While these inventions have their own importance in various fields, they did not have the same impact on the Human Genome Project as the microprocessor did.

Question 5

The process by which an organism adapts to its environment through inherited traits is known as

  1. A. Acclimatization
  2. B. Behavioral ecology
  3. C. Natural selection
  4. D. Niche partitioning
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Natural selection

A) Acclimatization refers to the short-term physiological adjustments an individual organism makes in response to changes in its environment. This process is reversible and does not involve inherited traits. B) Behavioral ecology is the study of how behavior contributes to an organism's survival and reproduction in its environment. While behavior can be influenced by natural selection, it is not the process by which an organism adapts through inherited traits. C) Natural selection is the process by which organisms with advantageous traits for their environment are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on those traits to their offspring. Over time, this leads to the adaptation of populations to their environments. D) Niche partitioning is the process by which species divide resources to reduce competition within an ecosystem. While this can influence the evolution of species, it is not the process by which an organism adapts through inherited traits.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Ten more ATI TEAS 7 science questions

Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.

Question 6

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a population that is:

  1. A. Undergoing rapid evolution due to strong directional selection.
  2. B. Not evolving and at genetic equilibrium with stable allele frequencies.
  3. C. Experiencing a founder effect leading to a reduction in genetic diversity.
  4. D. Dominated by a single homozygous genotype that eliminates all variation.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

A person who carries a pathogen but does not exhibit any symptoms is considered:

  1. A. Asymptomatic carrier
  2. B. Opportunistic pathogen
  3. C. Nosocomial infection
  4. D. Vector-borne disease
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

A rocket engine expels hot gases backwards. What principle explains the rocket's forward motion?

  1. A. Newton's first law of motion
  2. B. Newton's second law of motion
  3. C. Newton's third law of motion
  4. D. Law of conservation of energy
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

Differentiate between gene therapy and genetic engineering in the context of human intervention.

  1. A. Gene therapy aims to modify existing genes within body cells, while genetic engineering manipulates genes in embryos to be passed on to offspring.
  2. B. Gene therapy focuses on treating genetic diseases, while genetic engineering enhances desirable traits or eliminates undesirable ones.
  3. C. Both involve directly altering the DNA sequence, but gene therapy targets somatic cells and genetic engineering modifies germline cells.
  4. D. There is no fundamental difference; both terms are synonymous.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

Which of the following properties is NOT characteristic of a covalent bond?

  1. A. Sharing of electrons between atoms
  2. B. High melting and boiling points
  3. C. Low electrical conductivity in solid state
  4. D. Directional bonding
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

What is the process by which cells respond to external stimuli, such as chemicals, temperature, or touch, called?

  1. A. Signal transduction
  2. B. Homeostasis
  3. C. Adaptation
  4. D. Metabolism
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

What is the name of the regulatory region in a gene that controls its expression?

  1. A. Exon
  2. B. Intron
  3. C. Promoter
  4. D. Enhancer
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

In order to be included in the formation of a scientific conclusion, evidence must be:

  1. A. Quantitative
  2. B. Reproducible
  3. C. Obvious
  4. D. All of the above
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a common route of transmission for a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

  1. A. Unprotected sexual contact
  2. B. Sharing contaminated needles
  3. C. Deep kissing
  4. D. Mother to child during childbirth
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

Which part of the spinal cord is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body to the brain?

  1. A. Dorsal root
  2. B. Ventral root
  3. C. Gray matter
  4. D. White matter
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these ATI TEAS 7 science questions

ATI TEAS 7 science practice questions, set 4 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the ATI TEAS 7 exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.