You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When considering the goals of complementary and alternative medicines, which patient would be of particular interest to researchers studying advances in symptom management?
A. One who experiences chronic pain related to a neck injury
B. A patient diagnosed with an acute gastrointestinal infection
C. A pregnant woman diagnosed with gestational diabetes
D. A child requiring surgery for a clubbed foot
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — One who experiences chronic pain related to a neck injury
The correct answer is A because chronic pain related to a neck injury is a common condition that complementary and alternative medicines often aim to address through symptom management. Researchers studying advances in this area would be interested in patients with chronic pain as they provide an opportunity to explore the effectiveness of alternative treatments.
Choice B is incorrect because acute gastrointestinal infections are typically managed through conventional medical interventions, rather than complementary or alternative medicines.
Choice C is incorrect as gestational diabetes in pregnant women requires close monitoring and management by medical professionals, making it less likely to be a focus for researchers studying advances in complementary and alternative medicines for symptom management.
Choice D is incorrect because surgery for a clubbed foot is a condition that is usually addressed through surgical interventions and physical therapy, rather than complementary or alternative medicines for symptom management.
Question 2
A client comes to the emergency department because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Further assessment determines that the client is not having a heart attack but is having a panic attack. When beginning to interview the client, which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to use?
A. Are you feeling much better now that you are lying down?
B. What did you experience just before and during the attack?
C. Do you think you will be able to drive home?
D. What do you think caused you to feel this way?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — What did you experience just before and during the attack?
The correct answer is B: "What did you experience just before and during the attack?" This question is appropriate because it helps gather information about the client's triggers and symptoms during the panic attack, aiding in identifying potential causes and providing appropriate interventions. By understanding the client's experience before and during the attack, the nurse can better assess the situation and provide personalized care.
Incorrect Choices:
A: "Are you feeling much better now that you are lying down?" - This question does not address the client's experience or provide insight into the panic attack triggers or symptoms.
C: "Do you think you will be able to drive home?" - This question is not a priority at the initial assessment and does not focus on understanding the client's condition.
D: "What do you think caused you to feel this way?" - While this question is relevant, it is not as specific as asking about the experience before and during the attack, which can provide more immediate information for intervention.
Question 3
Individuals with severe mental illness (SMI) diagnoses can suffer from ineffective healthcare. Providers may be unaccustomed to working with this population or not comprehend obscure details described by the person seeking medical attention. This hurdle can be overcome by:
A. Seeking medical attention at the emergency department.
B. Having a community clinic in the area where the SMI live.
C. Medicate the patient before a medical examination.
D. Integrating mental and physical health in one setting.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Integrating mental and physical health in one setting.
The correct answer is D: Integrating mental and physical health in one setting. This approach ensures that individuals with SMI receive holistic care addressing both their mental and physical health needs simultaneously. By having mental health professionals collaborate with medical providers in one setting, communication barriers are reduced, leading to more effective treatment. This integrated approach also helps in better coordination of care and ensures that all aspects of the individual's health are considered.
Choice A (Seeking medical attention at the emergency department) is incorrect because it does not address the long-term need for integrated care for individuals with SMI. Choice B (Having a community clinic in the area where the SMI live) might help with accessibility but does not guarantee the integration of mental and physical health services. Choice C (Medicating the patient before a medical examination) is inappropriate as it does not address the underlying issue of healthcare disparity for individuals with SMI.
Question 4
A patient has delusions and hallucinations. Before beginning treatment with a psychotropic medication, the health care provider wants to rule out the presence of a brain tumor. For which test will a nurse need to prepare the patient?
A. Cerebral arteriogram
B. Computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C. Positron emission tomography (PET) or single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
D. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
The correct answer is B: Computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). To rule out a brain tumor, a CT scan or MRI is essential because they provide detailed images of the brain structure, allowing healthcare providers to visualize any abnormalities such as tumors.
Step-by-step rationale:
1. CT scan and MRI are common imaging tests used to detect structural abnormalities in the brain, including tumors.
2. These tests provide detailed cross-sectional images of the brain, enabling healthcare providers to assess the presence of any masses or lesions.
3. By evaluating the images from a CT scan or MRI, healthcare providers can determine if a brain tumor is present before initiating treatment with psychotropic medication.
Summary of other choices:
- A: Cerebral arteriogram is used to visualize blood vessels in the brain and is not specifically for detecting brain tumors.
- C: PET or SPECT scans are more useful in assessing brain function and blood flow, rather than detecting structural abnormalities like tumors.
Question 5
Which of the following is true regarding epigenetic changes?
A. Epigenetic changes are reversible.
B. Epigenetic changes, changes the DNA and how the body reacts to the DNA sequence.
C. Epigenetic changes are not linked to mental health conditions.
D. When combined with genetic risks, epigenetic changes decreased the risk for a psychiatric disease.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Epigenetic changes are reversible.
Rationale for correct answer A: Epigenetic changes are reversible because they involve modifications to gene expression without altering the underlying DNA sequence. These changes can be influenced by environmental factors and lifestyle choices, making them reversible through interventions like diet, exercise, and medication. This reversibility allows for the potential to modify gene expression and potentially reverse negative health outcomes.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Epigenetic changes do not alter the DNA sequence itself but regulate gene expression. They do not change how the body reacts to the DNA sequence but rather how genes are turned on or off.
C: Epigenetic changes have been linked to various mental health conditions, such as depression, schizophrenia, and PTSD, among others. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
D: Epigenetic changes can increase the risk for psychiatric diseases when combined with genetic predispositions, rather than decreasing the risk. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
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Question 6
A psychiatric nurse uses Sullivans theories in group and individual therapy. According to Sullivan and other theorists like him, how are client symptoms viewed behaviors that are maintained because they are reinforced?
A. Client symptoms are viewed as responses to anxiety arising from interpersonal relationships.
B. Client symptoms are viewed as internal conflicts arising from early childhood trauma.
C. Client symptoms are viewed as the misinterpretations of experiences.
D. Client symptoms are viewed as learned
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because Sullivan and other theorists like him believe that client symptoms are viewed as internal conflicts arising from early childhood trauma. Sullivan emphasized the impact of early relationships on personality development, suggesting that unresolved conflicts from childhood can manifest as symptoms in adulthood. This perspective aligns with psychodynamic theories that emphasize the role of unconscious processes and early experiences in shaping behavior.
Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on anxiety arising from interpersonal relationships, which is more aligned with interpersonal theories rather than Sullivan's emphasis on childhood experiences. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests misinterpretations of experiences, which does not fully capture the depth of internal conflicts highlighted by Sullivan. Choice D is incorrect as it simplifies client symptoms as learned behaviors without considering the underlying emotional conflicts rooted in early childhood experiences, as emphasized by Sullivan.
A nurse is trying to determine whether a client is exhibiting symptoms of depression or of her medical illness. Which of the following group of symptoms would indicate to the nurse that the client may be experiencing depression in addition to being medically ill?
A. Problems sleeping, decreased appetite, and frequent crying
B. Low self-esteem, decreased appetite, and problems sleeping
C. Feeling guilty, difficulty making decisions, and low self-esteem
D. Loss of energy, difficulty making decisions, and problems sleeping
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because feeling guilty, difficulty making decisions, and low self-esteem are classic symptoms of depression that are not typically associated with medical illnesses. Feeling guilty and low self-esteem are emotional symptoms commonly seen in depression, while difficulty making decisions is a cognitive symptom often linked with depression. This combination of symptoms suggests a psychological component beyond just the physical manifestations of the medical illness.
Choice A is incorrect because frequent crying is not specifically indicative of depression and can occur in response to physical pain or distress related to the medical illness.
Choice B is incorrect because low self-esteem alone is not enough to conclusively suggest depression in this context, as it can also be a response to the challenges of dealing with a medical condition.
Choice D is incorrect because loss of energy can be a symptom of both depression and medical illness, making it less specific to identifying depression in this case.
An adolescent diagnosed with a CD stole and wrecked a neighbor's motorcycle. Afterward, the adolescent was confronted about the behavior but expressed no remorse. Which variation in the central nervous system best explains the adolescent's reaction?
A. Serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity impair one's capacity for remorse.
B. Increased neuron destruction in the hippocampus results in decreased abilities to conform to social rules.
C. Reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala results in decreased feelings of empathy.
D. Disturbances in the occipital lobe reduce sensations that help an individual clearly visualize the consequences of behavior.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala can lead to decreased feelings of empathy. The adolescent's lack of remorse for stealing and wrecking the neighbor's motorcycle suggests a deficit in empathy, which is controlled by the amygdala and the cortex. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, including empathy, while the cortex plays a role in higher cognitive functions like decision-making and understanding consequences. Dysfunction in these areas can result in a lack of emotional response or understanding of the impact of one's actions, leading to a lack of remorse.
Choice A is incorrect because while serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity can affect behavior, they are not directly linked to remorse. Choice B is incorrect as neuron destruction in the hippocampus is associated with memory and learning, not empathy. Choice D is incorrect because disturbances in the occipital lobe are related to visual processing, not empathy or remorse.
When integrating the Neuman systems model while caring for a patient with a mood disorder, the nurse would focus on which of the following about the patient?
A. Behaviors
B. Relationships
C. Self-care activities
D. Stressors
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A (Behaviors) because, when integrating the Neuman systems model for a patient with a mood disorder, the nurse would focus on the patient's behaviors to assess how the disorder is impacting their daily functioning and interactions. By observing behaviors, the nurse can gain insights into the patient's coping mechanisms, emotional responses, and overall mental health status. This information is crucial for developing a tailored care plan that addresses the patient's specific needs.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- Relationships (B): While relationships may play a role in the patient's mental health, the primary focus in the Neuman systems model for a patient with a mood disorder is on individual behaviors.
- Self-care activities (C): While self-care is important, it may not be the primary focus when caring for a patient with a mood disorder using the Neuman systems model.
- Stressors (D): While stressors can contribute to a mood disorder, the Neuman systems model emphasizes the assessment of
A 26-month-old displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often says, "No!" Which psychosocial crisis is evident?
A. Trust versus mistrust
B. Initiative versus guilt
C. Industry versus inferiority
D. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Autonomy versus shame and doubt. At 26 months, children are in the toddler stage where they are developing autonomy and independence. The child's negative behavior, refusal of toilet training, and constant use of "No!" suggest a struggle with asserting independence (autonomy) while also feeling the shame and doubt associated with not meeting expectations. This aligns with Erikson's psychosocial stage of Autonomy versus shame and doubt.
A: Trust versus mistrust is resolved in infancy, where the child develops trust in caregivers.
B: Initiative versus guilt occurs in early childhood when children explore their abilities and may feel guilty for overstepping boundaries.
C: Industry versus inferiority is experienced in middle childhood, focusing on feelings of competence and accomplishment versus inadequacy.
In summary, the child's behavior and resistance to toilet training indicate a conflict between asserting independence and feeling shame and doubt, which aligns with Autonomy versus shame and doubt.
A patient was hospitalized for 24 hours after a reaction to a psychotropic medication. While planning discharge, the case manager learned that the patient received a notice of eviction immediately prior to admission. Select the case manager's most appropriate action.
A. Postpone the patient's discharge from the hospital.
B. Contact the landlord who evicted the patient to further discuss the situation.
C. Arrange a temporary place for the patient to stay until new housing can be arrange
D. Determine whether the adverse medication reaction was genuine because the patient had nowhere to live.
Correct answer:
The correct action for the case manager is to arrange a temporary place for the patient to stay until new housing can be arranged. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the immediate need of the patient for housing stability. By providing temporary accommodation, it ensures the patient's safety and well-being while allowing time to find a more permanent housing solution.
Postponing discharge (Choice A) could lead to prolonged hospitalization, increasing healthcare costs unnecessarily. Contacting the landlord (Choice B) may not directly address the patient's housing needs and could potentially escalate the situation.
Determining the genuineness of the adverse medication reaction based on the patient's housing situation (Choice D) is not relevant to addressing the patient's immediate housing needs and may undermine the patient's care.
In summary, Choice C is the best course of action as it prioritizes the patient's immediate safety and well-being while working towards a more permanent housing solution.
Which documentation for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder indicates the treatment plan was effective?
A. Slept 6 hours uninterrupted. Sang with activity group. Anticipates seeing grandchild.
B. Slept 10 hours uninterrupted. Attended craft group; stated 'project was a failure, just like me.'
C. Slept 5 hours with brief interruptions. Personal hygiene adequate with assistance. Weight loss of 1 pound.
D. Slept 7 hours uninterrupted. Preoccupied with perceived inadequacies. States, 'I feel tired all the time.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it indicates positive outcomes in the patient's mood and behavior. Sleeping 6 hours uninterrupted suggests improved sleep patterns, singing with an activity group shows engagement and enjoyment, and looking forward to seeing the grandchild demonstrates positive anticipation and social connection. This documentation aligns with the goals of treating major depressive disorder, which include improving sleep, increasing social interaction, and enhancing mood.
Choice B is incorrect because the patient's statement about the project being a failure reflects negative self-perception, which is not indicative of treatment effectiveness.
Choice C is incorrect because the patient's weight loss and need for assistance with personal hygiene suggest potential ongoing challenges and lack of improvement in self-care.
Choice D is incorrect because the patient feeling tired all the time and being preoccupied with inadequacies indicate persistent symptoms of depression and lack of progress in treatment.
An adolescent diagnosed with a CD stole and wrecked a neighbor's motorcycle. Afterward, the adolescent was confronted about the behavior but expressed no remorse. Which variation in the central nervous system best explains the adolescent's reaction?
A. Serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity impair one's capacity for remorse.
B. Increased neuron destruction in the hippocampus results in decreased abilities to conform to social rules.
C. Reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala results in decreased feelings of empathy.
D. Disturbances in the occipital lobe reduce sensations that help an individual clearly visualize the consequences of behavior.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala can lead to decreased feelings of empathy. The adolescent's lack of remorse for stealing and wrecking the neighbor's motorcycle suggests a deficit in empathy, which is controlled by the amygdala and the cortex. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, including empathy, while the cortex plays a role in higher cognitive functions like decision-making and understanding consequences. Dysfunction in these areas can result in a lack of emotional response or understanding of the impact of one's actions, leading to a lack of remorse.
Choice A is incorrect because while serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity can affect behavior, they are not directly linked to remorse. Choice B is incorrect as neuron destruction in the hippocampus is associated with memory and learning, not empathy. Choice D is incorrect because disturbances in the occipital lobe are related to visual processing, not empathy or remorse.
A 26-month-old displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often says, 'No!' Which psychosocial crisis is evident?
A. Trust versus mistrust
B. Initiative versus guilt
C. Industry versus inferiority
D. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Autonomy versus shame and doubt. At 26 months, the child is in the toddler stage according to Erikson's psychosocial development theory. During this stage, children are developing a sense of autonomy and independence. The negative behavior, refusal of toilet training, and saying 'No!' are all indicative of the child asserting their autonomy and testing boundaries. If the child is met with criticism or punishment for their attempts at independence, they may develop feelings of shame and doubt. This aligns with the psychosocial crisis of Autonomy versus shame and doubt.
Summary of other choices:
A: Trust versus mistrust - This crisis occurs in infancy, where the primary focus is on developing trust in the caregiver. Not applicable in this scenario.
B: Initiative versus guilt - This crisis occurs in early childhood, focusing on taking initiative in activities. Not relevant to the behaviors described.
C: Industry versus inferiority - This crisis occurs in middle childhood, emphasizing the development of
A nursing student is experiencing fears related to the first clinical experience in a psychiatric setting. This is most likely to occur in which phase of the nurse-client relationship?
A. In the pre-interaction phase, because the student is likely to be suspicious of psychiatric clients.
B. In the orientation phase, because the psychiatric client may threaten the student's role identity.
C. In the working phase, because the student may feel emotionally vulnerable to past experiences.
D. In the termination phase, because the student may be uncertain about his or her ability to make a difference.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: In the pre-interaction phase, because the student is likely to be suspicious of psychiatric clients. During the pre-interaction phase, the nurse forms initial impressions and feelings about the client. The nursing student's fears related to the first clinical experience in a psychiatric setting are likely to manifest in this phase as they may have misconceptions or stereotypes about psychiatric clients, leading to feelings of fear or suspicion. This phase sets the tone for the interaction and can influence the student's approach and behavior during the clinical experience.
Summary of other choices:
B: In the orientation phase, the focus is on establishing trust and clarifying roles, not on the student's fears.
C: In the working phase, the student should be actively engaging in therapeutic interventions, not focused on past experiences.
D: In the termination phase, the student should be reflecting on the outcomes of the therapeutic relationship, not on fears about their ability to make a difference.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 8 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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