RN exams maternity and newborn practice questions, set 12
RN exams · maternity and newborn
RN exams maternity and newborn practice questionsset 12
You work labor, postpartum, and newborn safety items the way maternity exams write the next action. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five maternity and newborn questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is researching for evidence-based practice related to a mother's response during the postpartum period. Based on research by Rubin and Mercer, which finding will the nurse be able to easily implement to change the culture of the unit?
A. Satisfaction questionnaires
B. Alterations in terminology
C. Decrease nurse/patient ratios
D. Soliciting paternal expectations
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Alterations in terminology
The correct answer is B: Alterations in terminology. Rubin and Mercer's research emphasizes the importance of language in shaping attitudes and behaviors during the postpartum period. By changing the terminology used in the unit to promote positive and empowering language, the nurse can easily implement this finding to change the unit's culture. This can have a significant impact on how mothers perceive their experiences and how they are supported.
Incorrect choices:
A: Satisfaction questionnaires - While important for feedback, satisfaction questionnaires do not directly address changing the culture of the unit.
C: Decrease nurse/patient ratios - This may improve patient care but does not specifically relate to changing the culture of the unit.
D: Soliciting paternal expectations - While involving fathers is important, it does not directly address changing the language and culture of the unit.
Question 2
A pregnant patient has received the results of her triple-screen testing and it is positive. She provides you with a copy of the test results that she obtained from the lab. What would the nurse anticipate as being implemented in the patient's plan of care?
A. No further testing is indicated at this time because results are normal.
B. Refer to the physician for additional testing.
C. Validate the results with the lab facility.
D. Repeat the test in 2 weeks and have the patient return for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Refer to the physician for additional testing.
The correct answer is B: Refer to the physician for additional testing. When a triple-screen test is positive in a pregnant patient, it indicates an increased risk of certain conditions such as neural tube defects or chromosomal abnormalities. Therefore, the appropriate course of action is to refer the patient to a physician for further diagnostic testing, such as amniocentesis or ultrasound, to confirm or rule out these conditions.
Choice A is incorrect because a positive result on a triple-screen test does not indicate that results are normal; it suggests the need for further investigation. Choice C is incorrect because validating the results with the lab facility does not address the need for additional diagnostic testing. Choice D is incorrect because waiting 2 weeks to repeat the test and returning for a regular prenatal visit may delay necessary interventions or treatment for the patient.
Question 3
The nurse observes a patient on her first postpartum day sitting in bed while her newborn lies awake in the bassinet. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take at this time?
A. Hand the baby to the woman.
B. Explain “taking-in” to the woman.
C. Offer to hand the baby to the woman.
D. No action, because this situation is perfectly acceptabl
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Explain “taking-in” to the woman.
The correct answer is B: Explain "taking-in" to the woman. This action allows the nurse to educate the woman on the normal postpartum adjustment period. By explaining "taking-in," the nurse helps the woman understand her current need for rest and reflection without feeling guilty about not immediately attending to her newborn. This approach promotes bonding by reducing anxiety and enhancing the mother's confidence in her abilities.
Summary of other choices:
A: Hand the baby to the woman - This choice may not address the woman's emotional needs and understanding of her current state.
C: Offer to hand the baby to the woman - While offering is a good gesture, it may not address the underlying need for education and reassurance.
D: No action, because this situation is perfectly acceptable - Ignoring the opportunity to provide guidance and support may lead to confusion and insecurity for the woman.
Question 4
A patient in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. The patient asks, “Why is
this happening?†What is the nurse’s best response?
A. "It is due to an increase in gastric motility."
B. "It may be due to changes in hormones."
C. "It is related to an increase in glucose levels."
D. "It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "It may be due to changes in hormones."
The correct answer is B: "It may be due to changes in hormones." During the first trimester of pregnancy, hormonal changes, particularly an increase in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and estrogen levels, can trigger nausea and vomiting. This is known as morning sickness. These hormonal fluctuations can affect the gastrointestinal system, leading to symptoms of nausea and vomiting.
Choice A (increase in gastric motility) is incorrect because nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are more commonly attributed to hormonal changes rather than an increase in gastric motility.
Choice C (increase in glucose levels) is also incorrect as there is no direct link between elevated glucose levels and nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Choice D (decrease in gastric secretions) is incorrect as there is no evidence to support that a decrease in gastric secretions causes nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Question 5
The nurse screens for risk factors such as an infant in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU), difficulty in role transition, birth complications, unmet social and physical needs, and lack of partner support for what complication?
A. maladaptive parenting
B. psychosis
C. postpartum depression
D. bipolar disorder
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — postpartum depression
The correct answer is C: postpartum depression. Screening for risk factors such as a baby in the NICU, difficulty in role transition, birth complications, unmet social and physical needs, and lack of partner support are all associated with an increased risk for postpartum depression. Postpartum depression is a common complication that affects many new mothers and can have significant impacts on both the mother and the baby's well-being. It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant in screening for these risk factors to identify and support mothers at risk for postpartum depression.
Summary:
A: maladaptive parenting - Not directly related to the risk factors listed.
B: psychosis - Not typically associated with the listed risk factors.
D: bipolar disorder - While bipolar disorder can occur postpartum, the listed risk factors are more specifically linked to postpartum depression.
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Question 6
What is a risk factor for PPH found in the prenatal record?
A. primipara
B. rubella nonimmune
C. von Willebrand disorder
D. history of appendectomy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: von Willebrand disorder. This is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) as it can lead to abnormal bleeding during and after childbirth. von Willebrand disorder is a hereditary bleeding disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot properly. This can increase the likelihood of excessive bleeding during delivery, putting the mother at risk for PPH.
Choice A: primipara is incorrect, as being a first-time mother (primipara) is not a direct risk factor for PPH.
Choice B: rubella nonimmune is incorrect, as rubella immunity status is not directly related to the risk of PPH.
Choice D: history of appendectomy is incorrect, as a previous appendectomy is not a known risk factor for PPH.
In summary, the presence of von Willebrand disorder in the prenatal record is a significant risk factor for PPH due to its impact on blood clotting ability during childbirth.
A labor patient, gravida 2, para 1, at term has received meperidine (Demerol) for pain control during labor. Her most recent dose was 15 minutes ago and birth is now imminent. Maternal vital signs have been stable and the EFM tracing has not shown any baseline changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate would be required in the birth room for administration?
A. Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B. Naloxone (Narcan)
C. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D. Oxygen
Correct answer:
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxytocin (Pitocin). Oxytocin is commonly given during the third stage of labor to help with uterine contractions and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Meperidine can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate needing oxytocin to assist with contractions after birth to minimize bleeding.
Summary of other choices:
B: Naloxone (Narcan) - This is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine. However, it is not typically needed if the newborn does not show signs of respiratory depression.
C: Bromocriptine (Parlodel) - This medication is not commonly used during labor and birth and is not indicated in this scenario.
D: Oxygen - While oxygen may be needed for the mother or newborn in certain situations, it is not directly related to the administration of meperidine or
Which description best explains the term reciprocal attachment behavior?
A. Behavior during the sensitive period when the infant is in the quiet alert stage
B. Positive feedback that the infant exhibits toward parents during the attachment process
C. Unidirectional behavior exhibited by the infant, initiated and enhanced by eye contact
D. Behavior by the infant during the sensitive period to elicit feelings of “falling in love†from the parents
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because reciprocal attachment behavior refers to the mutual and positive interactions between infants and their caregivers during the attachment process. This behavior involves the infant responding to the caregiver's actions with positive feedback, such as smiles, cooing, and seeking physical contact. This interaction strengthens the bond between the infant and caregiver.
Choice A is incorrect because it describes the infant's behavior during a specific stage (quiet alert stage) but does not capture the reciprocal nature of attachment behavior. Choice C is incorrect because reciprocal attachment behavior is not unidirectional and does not solely depend on eye contact. Choice D is incorrect because reciprocal attachment behavior is not about eliciting specific feelings from the parents but rather about building a strong, mutual bond between the infant and caregiver.
Which description best explains the term reciprocal attachment behavior?
A. Behavior during the sensitive period when the infant is in the quiet alert stage
B. Positive feedback that the infant exhibits toward parents during the attachment process
C. Unidirectional behavior exhibited by the infant, initiated and enhanced by eye contact
D. Behavior by the infant during the sensitive period to elicit feelings of “falling in love” from the parents
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because reciprocal attachment behavior refers to the mutual and positive interactions between infants and their caregivers during the attachment process. This behavior involves the infant responding to the caregiver's actions with positive feedback, such as smiles, cooing, and seeking physical contact. This interaction strengthens the bond between the infant and caregiver.
Choice A is incorrect because it describes the infant's behavior during a specific stage (quiet alert stage) but does not capture the reciprocal nature of attachment behavior. Choice C is incorrect because reciprocal attachment behavior is not unidirectional and does not solely depend on eye contact. Choice D is incorrect because reciprocal attachment behavior is not about eliciting specific feelings from the parents but rather about building a strong, mutual bond between the infant and caregiver.
The nurse screens for risk factors such as an infant in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU), difficulty in role transition, birth complications, unmet social and physical needs, and lack of partner support for what complication?
A. maladaptive parenting
B. psychosis
C. postpartum depression
D. bipolar disorder
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: postpartum depression. Screening for risk factors such as a baby in the NICU, difficulty in role transition, birth complications, unmet social and physical needs, and lack of partner support are all associated with an increased risk for postpartum depression. Postpartum depression is a common complication that affects many new mothers and can have significant impacts on both the mother and the baby's well-being. It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant in screening for these risk factors to identify and support mothers at risk for postpartum depression.
Summary:
A: maladaptive parenting - Not directly related to the risk factors listed.
B: psychosis - Not typically associated with the listed risk factors.
D: bipolar disorder - While bipolar disorder can occur postpartum, the listed risk factors are more specifically linked to postpartum depression.
A patient in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. The patient asks, “Why is
this happening?” What is the nurse’s best response?
A. "It is due to an increase in gastric motility."
B. "It may be due to changes in hormones."
C. "It is related to an increase in glucose levels."
D. "It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: "It may be due to changes in hormones." During the first trimester of pregnancy, hormonal changes, particularly an increase in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and estrogen levels, can trigger nausea and vomiting. This is known as morning sickness. These hormonal fluctuations can affect the gastrointestinal system, leading to symptoms of nausea and vomiting.
Choice A (increase in gastric motility) is incorrect because nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are more commonly attributed to hormonal changes rather than an increase in gastric motility.
Choice C (increase in glucose levels) is also incorrect as there is no direct link between elevated glucose levels and nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Choice D (decrease in gastric secretions) is incorrect as there is no evidence to support that a decrease in gastric secretions causes nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
A labor patient, gravida 2, para 1, at term has received meperidine (Demerol) for pain control during labor. Her most recent dose was 15 minutes ago and birth is now imminent. Maternal vital signs have been stable and the EFM tracing has not shown any baseline changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate would be required in the birth room for administration?
A. Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B. Naloxone (Narcan)
C. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D. Oxygen
Correct answer:
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxytocin (Pitocin). Oxytocin is commonly given during the third stage of labor to help with uterine contractions and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Meperidine can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate needing oxytocin to assist with contractions after birth to minimize bleeding.
Summary of other choices:
B: Naloxone (Narcan) - This is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine. However, it is not typically needed if the newborn does not show signs of respiratory depression.
C: Bromocriptine (Parlodel) - This medication is not commonly used during labor and birth and is not indicated in this scenario.
D: Oxygen - While oxygen may be needed for the mother or newborn in certain situations, it is not directly related to the administration of meperidine or
A nurse is providing prenatal care to a 24-week pregnant patient. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately?
A. Mild leg swelling and varicosities
B. Slight back pain and cramping
C. Severe headaches and visual disturbances
D. Increased appetite and weight gain
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Severe headaches and visual disturbances. These symptoms can indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Severe headaches and visual disturbances are signs of increased blood pressure, protein in the urine, and potential organ damage. Reporting these findings promptly allows for timely intervention.
Incorrect choices:
A: Mild leg swelling and varicosities are common in pregnancy and typically not urgent unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
B: Slight back pain and cramping are common discomforts in pregnancy and may not indicate a serious issue unless they are severe or persistent.
D: Increased appetite and weight gain are expected during pregnancy and may not require immediate reporting unless there are other concerning symptoms present.
What is a risk factor for PPH found in the prenatal record?
A. primipara
B. rubella nonimmune
C. von Willebrand disorder
D. history of appendectomy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: von Willebrand disorder. This is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) as it can lead to abnormal bleeding during and after childbirth. von Willebrand disorder is a hereditary bleeding disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot properly. This can increase the likelihood of excessive bleeding during delivery, putting the mother at risk for PPH.
Choice A: primipara is incorrect, as being a first-time mother (primipara) is not a direct risk factor for PPH.
Choice B: rubella nonimmune is incorrect, as rubella immunity status is not directly related to the risk of PPH.
Choice D: history of appendectomy is incorrect, as a previous appendectomy is not a known risk factor for PPH.
In summary, the presence of von Willebrand disorder in the prenatal record is a significant risk factor for PPH due to its impact on blood clotting ability during childbirth.
The lactation nurse takes a phone call from a mother who is breastfeeding her 2-month-old infant. The mother reports an area of redness and warmth on the breast and a painful burning sensation when breastfeeding. Which statement by the nurse is correct if mastitis is suspected?
A. If your nipples are cracked, you will need to stop breastfeeding.
B. Pump your milk and throw it away until the infection is gone.
C. The baby gave you an infection and needs to be on antibiotics.
D. Continuing to breastfeed will help clear up the condition.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Continuing to breastfeed will help clear up the condition.
Rationale:
1. Continuing to breastfeed helps to empty the breast and prevent milk stasis, which can worsen mastitis.
2. Breastfeeding helps maintain milk production and prevents engorgement, which can exacerbate the infection.
3. Breast milk has antibacterial properties that can help fight the infection.
4. Stopping breastfeeding abruptly can lead to more serious complications like abscess formation.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Stopping breastfeeding abruptly can lead to complications and does not address the underlying infection.
B: Incorrect. Pumping and throwing away milk does not address the underlying infection and can lead to decreased milk supply.
C: Incorrect. Mastitis is not caused by the baby, and antibiotics are not always necessary if managed promptly with breastfeeding and self-care.
About these RN exams maternity and newborn questions
RN exams maternity and newborn practice questions, set 12 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
