RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 4
RN exams · gastrointestinal
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questionsset 4
You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five gastrointestinal questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
To evaluate the effect of nutritional interventions for a patient with protein-calorie malnutrition, what is the best indicator for the nurse to use?
A. Height and weight
B. Weight in relation to ideal body weight
C. Body mass index (BMI)
D. Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold
The correct answer is D. Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold are commonly used indicators to assess muscle and fat reserves in individuals with protein-calorie malnutrition. Mid-upper arm circumference reflects muscle mass, while triceps skinfold measures body fat. These indicators provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's nutritional status, making them the best choice for evaluating the effectiveness of nutritional interventions.
A: Height and weight do not provide a specific assessment of muscle and fat reserves and may not accurately reflect changes in nutritional status.
B: Weight in relation to ideal body weight does not differentiate between muscle and fat mass, making it less specific for assessing protein-calorie malnutrition.
C: BMI is a general indicator of weight status and does not specifically measure muscle and fat reserves, making it less suitable for evaluating nutritional interventions in patients with protein-calorie malnutrition.
Question 2
To evaluate the effect of nutritional interventions for a patient with protein-calorie malnutrition, what is the best indicator for the nurse to use?
A. Height and weight
B. Weight in relation to ideal body weight
C. Body mass index (BMI)
D. Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold
The correct answer is D. Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold are commonly used indicators to assess muscle and fat reserves in individuals with protein-calorie malnutrition. Mid-upper arm circumference reflects muscle mass, while triceps skinfold measures body fat. These indicators provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's nutritional status, making them the best choice for evaluating the effectiveness of nutritional interventions.
A: Height and weight do not provide a specific assessment of muscle and fat reserves and may not accurately reflect changes in nutritional status.
B: Weight in relation to ideal body weight does not differentiate between muscle and fat mass, making it less specific for assessing protein-calorie malnutrition.
C: BMI is a general indicator of weight status and does not specifically measure muscle and fat reserves, making it less suitable for evaluating nutritional interventions in patients with protein-calorie malnutrition.
Question 3
The nurse is admitting a 72-year-old patient from the health care provider's office to the medical/surgical unit. The patient was alert until recently and has
A. Over the past 36 hours the patient developed signs and
B. On admission assessment which manifestations would the RN expect to assess? Vital Signs: Pulse 112 beats/min Respiration 34 breaths/min Blood Pressure 168/94 mmHg -Distended neck veins -Alert and oriented -Pale, cool skin -Weight loss -Bilateral rhonchi -Increased heart rate -Weak, thready pulse -Hyperactive bowel sounds -Deep respirations -Pitting edema of lower extremities Rationale: The patient would have pale and cool skin, increased and bounding HR, distended neck veins, hyperactive bowel sounds, and pitting edema of lower extremities.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — On admission assessment which manifestations would the RN expect to assess? Vital Signs: Pulse 112 beats/min Respiration 34 breaths/min Blood Pressure 168/94 mmHg -Distended neck veins -Alert and oriented -Pale, cool skin -Weight loss -Bilateral rhonchi -Increased heart rate -Weak, thready pulse -Hyperactive bowel sounds -Deep respirations -Pitting edema of lower extremities Rationale: The patient would have pale and cool skin, increased and bounding HR, distended neck veins, hyperactive bowel sounds, and pitting edema of lower extremities.
The correct answer is B because the manifestations described in the answer choice are indicative of potential complications in the patient's health status. Elevated pulse rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure suggest physiological stress. Distended neck veins may indicate fluid overload or heart failure. Pale, cool skin can imply poor perfusion. Weight loss could suggest malnutrition. Bilateral rhonchi indicate respiratory issues. Increased heart rate and weak, thready pulse may indicate inadequate cardiac output. Hyperactive bowel sounds could indicate gastrointestinal distress. Deep respirations may suggest metabolic acidosis. Pitting edema of lower extremities may indicate fluid retention or heart failure. Therefore, option B encompasses a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition, reflecting potential underlying issues that need to be addressed. Other choices do not provide a comprehensive assessment or do not address the patient's current health status.
Question 4
The nurse is admitting a 72-year-old patient from the health care provider's office to the medical/surgical unit. The patient was alert until recently and has
A. Over the past 36 hours the patient developed signs and
B. On admission assessment which manifestations would the RN expect to assess? Vital Signs: Pulse 112 beats/min Respiration 34 breaths/min Blood Pressure 168/94 mmHg -Distended neck veins -Alert and oriented -Pale, cool skin -Weight loss -Bilateral rhonchi -Increased heart rate -Weak, thready pulse -Hyperactive bowel sounds -Deep respirations -Pitting edema of lower extremities Rationale: The patient would have pale and cool skin, increased and bounding HR, distended neck veins, hyperactive bowel sounds, and pitting edema of lower extremities.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — On admission assessment which manifestations would the RN expect to assess? Vital Signs: Pulse 112 beats/min Respiration 34 breaths/min Blood Pressure 168/94 mmHg -Distended neck veins -Alert and oriented -Pale, cool skin -Weight loss -Bilateral rhonchi -Increased heart rate -Weak, thready pulse -Hyperactive bowel sounds -Deep respirations -Pitting edema of lower extremities Rationale: The patient would have pale and cool skin, increased and bounding HR, distended neck veins, hyperactive bowel sounds, and pitting edema of lower extremities.
The correct answer is B because the manifestations described in the answer choice are indicative of potential complications in the patient's health status. Elevated pulse rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure suggest physiological stress. Distended neck veins may indicate fluid overload or heart failure. Pale, cool skin can imply poor perfusion. Weight loss could suggest malnutrition. Bilateral rhonchi indicate respiratory issues. Increased heart rate and weak, thready pulse may indicate inadequate cardiac output. Hyperactive bowel sounds could indicate gastrointestinal distress. Deep respirations may suggest metabolic acidosis. Pitting edema of lower extremities may indicate fluid retention or heart failure. Therefore, option B encompasses a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition, reflecting potential underlying issues that need to be addressed. Other choices do not provide a comprehensive assessment or do not address the patient's current health status.
Question 5
A nurse was becoming very frustrated at the ongoing stream of farmworkers with respiratory problems each spring. Which action should be taken by the nurse?
A. Provide community education on herbicides and other chemicals spread each spring with information on self-protective measures, such as respirators
B. Fight to get farmers to quit spreading chemicals on their fields each spring
C. Suggest that farmers spray water on the fields immediately after the chemicals are spread to reduce dust in the air
D. Tell farm workers to obtain different employment
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Provide community education on herbicides and other chemicals spread each spring with information on self-protective measures, such as respirators
The correct answer is A: Provide community education on herbicides and other chemicals spread each spring with information on self-protective measures, such as respirators. This is the most appropriate action because it addresses the root cause of the issue by educating the community on how to protect themselves from respiratory problems caused by the chemicals. By providing education and promoting self-protective measures, the nurse can empower farmworkers to take control of their health and safety.
Choice B is incorrect because it is not feasible or realistic to expect farmers to quit spreading chemicals on their fields each spring, as it is likely essential for their farming practices. Choice C is incorrect because spraying water may not effectively reduce the harmful effects of the chemicals on respiratory health. Choice D is incorrect because telling farm workers to obtain different employment does not address the problem at hand and disregards their livelihoods.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
In most regions of the GI tract, smooth muscle fibres of the muscularis are arranged into:
A. Circular muscle (inner) followed by longitudinal muscle (outer)
B. Longitudinal muscle (inner) followed by Circular muscle (outer)
C. Circular and Longitudinal muscle whose relative position varies at different regions
D. Circular muscle (inner) followed by Longitudinal muscle and Serosa (outer)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because in most regions of the GI tract, the smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis layer are arranged with circular muscle fibers in the inner layer followed by longitudinal muscle fibers in the outer layer. This arrangement allows for peristalsis, the coordinated and rhythmic contractions that move food along the digestive tract. Circular muscles constrict the lumen of the tract, while longitudinal muscles shorten or lengthen the organ. This arrangement is crucial for efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the typical arrangement of smooth muscle fibers in the GI tract. Choice B reverses the order of the muscle layers, which would disrupt peristalsis. Choice C is vague and does not provide a specific and accurate description of the muscle arrangement. Choice D includes the serosa layer, which is not part of the muscularis layer where the smooth muscle fibers are located.
A nurse was becoming very frustrated at the ongoing stream of farmworkers with respiratory problems each spring. Which action should be taken by the nurse?
A. Provide community education on herbicides and other chemicals spread each spring with information on self-protective measures, such as respirators
B. Fight to get farmers to quit spreading chemicals on their fields each spring
C. Suggest that farmers spray water on the fields immediately after the chemicals are spread to reduce dust in the air
D. Tell farm workers to obtain different employment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Provide community education on herbicides and other chemicals spread each spring with information on self-protective measures, such as respirators. This is the most appropriate action because it addresses the root cause of the issue by educating the community on how to protect themselves from respiratory problems caused by the chemicals. By providing education and promoting self-protective measures, the nurse can empower farmworkers to take control of their health and safety.
Choice B is incorrect because it is not feasible or realistic to expect farmers to quit spreading chemicals on their fields each spring, as it is likely essential for their farming practices. Choice C is incorrect because spraying water may not effectively reduce the harmful effects of the chemicals on respiratory health. Choice D is incorrect because telling farm workers to obtain different employment does not address the problem at hand and disregards their livelihoods.
A. Mucosa with short tubular invaginations but no villi; epithelium lacking goblet cells; lamina propria packed with lymphoid tissue containing numerous germinal centers
B. Mucosa lacking both tubular invaginations and villi; epithelium with many goblet cells; lamina propria unspecialized, without lymphoid tissue
C. Mucosa lacking both tubular invaginations and villi; epithelium lacking goblet cells; lamina propria packed with lymphoid tissue containing numerous germinal centers
D. Mucosa with short tubular invaginations but no villi; epithelium with many goblet cells; lamina propria packed with lymphoid tissue containing numerous germinal centers
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because it accurately describes the anatomy of the human appendix. The appendix has a mucosa with short tubular invaginations but no villi, which helps in increasing the surface area for immune response. The epithelium of the appendix does contain many goblet cells, which secrete mucus to protect the tissue. The lamina propria of the appendix is packed with lymphoid tissue containing numerous germinal centers, indicating its role in immune function.
Now, let's analyze the other choices:
A: This description does not mention the presence of goblet cells in the epithelium, which is incorrect.
B: This description states that the lamina propria is unspecialized, which is inaccurate as the appendix contains lymphoid tissue.
C: This description lacks the presence of goblet cells in the epithelium, which is incorrect.
In summary, choice D is the best description of the appendix as it accurately depicts its anatomical features related to immune
Which of the following statements are correct? P. Mechanical digestion occurs in the stomach. Q. Cholecystokinin, gastrin and secretin are produced by an enteroendocrine cells. R. Pancreas, small intestine and salivary glands produce digestive enzymes. S. Mucous neck cells, chief cells, parietal cells present in the stomach.
A. P and Q
B. Q and R
C. P,Q and R
D. P,Q,R and S
Correct answer:
Sure! Here is a step-by-step rationale for why answer choice D is correct:
P. Mechanical digestion occurs in the stomach: This statement is correct as the stomach performs mechanical digestion through the churning and mixing of food with gastric juices.
Q. Cholecystokinin, gastrin, and secretin are produced by enteroendocrine cells: This statement is correct as these hormones are indeed produced by enteroendocrine cells to regulate various digestive processes.
R. Pancreas, small intestine, and salivary glands produce digestive enzymes: This statement is correct as these organs are key producers of digestive enzymes essential for breaking down food components.
S. Mucous neck cells, chief cells, parietal cells are present in the stomach: This statement is correct as these are the types of cells found in the gastric glands of the stomach responsible for producing mucus, pepsinogen, and hydrochloric acid, respectively.
In summary, all the statements in answer choice D
In most regions of the GI tract, smooth muscle fibres of the muscularis are arranged into:
A. Circular muscle (inner) followed by longitudinal muscle (outer)
B. Longitudinal muscle (inner) followed by Circular muscle (outer)
C. Circular and Longitudinal muscle whose relative position varies at different regions
D. Circular muscle (inner) followed by Longitudinal muscle and Serosa (outer)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because in most regions of the GI tract, the smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis layer are arranged with circular muscle fibers in the inner layer followed by longitudinal muscle fibers in the outer layer. This arrangement allows for peristalsis, the coordinated and rhythmic contractions that move food along the digestive tract. Circular muscles constrict the lumen of the tract, while longitudinal muscles shorten or lengthen the organ. This arrangement is crucial for efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the typical arrangement of smooth muscle fibers in the GI tract. Choice B reverses the order of the muscle layers, which would disrupt peristalsis. Choice C is vague and does not provide a specific and accurate description of the muscle arrangement. Choice D includes the serosa layer, which is not part of the muscularis layer where the smooth muscle fibers are located.
What is the main underlying risk factor for metabolic syndrome?
A. Age
B. Heart disease
C. Insulin resistance
D. High cholesterol levels
Correct answer:
The main underlying risk factor for metabolic syndrome is insulin resistance (Choice C). Insulin resistance is a condition where the cells in the body do not respond effectively to insulin, leading to high blood sugar levels. This is a key feature of metabolic syndrome, which includes a cluster of conditions such as high blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol levels. Insulin resistance plays a central role in the development of metabolic syndrome by promoting inflammation, dyslipidemia, and cardiovascular complications. The other choices, Age (A), Heart disease (B), and High cholesterol levels (D), while they may be associated with metabolic syndrome, are not the main underlying risk factor. Age is a risk factor for many health conditions, heart disease is a potential consequence of metabolic syndrome, and high cholesterol levels are a component of metabolic syndrome but not the primary underlying risk factor.
What is the main underlying risk factor for metabolic syndrome?
A. Age
B. Heart disease
C. Insulin resistance
D. High cholesterol levels
Correct answer:
The main underlying risk factor for metabolic syndrome is insulin resistance (Choice C). Insulin resistance is a condition where the cells in the body do not respond effectively to insulin, leading to high blood sugar levels. This is a key feature of metabolic syndrome, which includes a cluster of conditions such as high blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol levels. Insulin resistance plays a central role in the development of metabolic syndrome by promoting inflammation, dyslipidemia, and cardiovascular complications. The other choices, Age (A), Heart disease (B), and High cholesterol levels (D), while they may be associated with metabolic syndrome, are not the main underlying risk factor. Age is a risk factor for many health conditions, heart disease is a potential consequence of metabolic syndrome, and high cholesterol levels are a component of metabolic syndrome but not the primary underlying risk factor.
A 47-year-old web designer has a 14-year history of ulcerative colitis. He recently moved to your area and presents to your office for continued management of his ulcerative colitis. He has been asymptomatic for the past two years and off all medications for one year with no rectal bleeding, diarrhea, abdominal pain, tenesmus, or fever. Before that he had very active colitis requiring steroids and immunosuppressants. He brings records from his previous physician that include his last three colonoscopy and pathology reports. The reports from 6 and 12 years ago documented active colitis with friable mucosa from the mid-transverse colon to the rectum, superficial ulcerations, crypt abscesses and crypt distortion, and acute and chronic inflammation. The most recent report, from almost three years ago, was fairly unremarkable endoscopically. Numerous random biopsies had been obtained. They showed mucosal changes on histology also consistent with a history of ulcerative colitis, but there was no evidence of active disease. What do you recommend?
A. Initiate steroids; if stools are heme-occult positive, then refer for colonoscopy
B. Do not start steroids; if stools are heme-occult positive, then refer for colonoscopy
C. Start steroids; refer for colonoscopy
D. Do not start steroids; refer for colonoscopy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Do not start steroids; if stools are heme-occult positive, then refer for colonoscopy. In this scenario, the patient is asymptomatic for the past two years and off all medications for one year with no signs of active disease. Initiation of steroids is not indicated as the patient is currently in remission. However, given the history of ulcerative colitis and the risk of disease flare-ups, it is important to monitor for any signs of disease recurrence. Checking for heme-occult positive stools can be an early indicator of active disease. Referring for colonoscopy if stools are heme-occult positive allows for a more thorough evaluation of disease activity without unnecessary initiation of steroids. This approach balances the need for monitoring with avoiding unnecessary treatment. Other choices are incorrect as they either recommend starting steroids in a patient in remission (A, C) or do not incorporate monitoring for disease activity (B).
The nurse is caring for a patient with a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. The nurse should carefully monitor the patient for which potential problem?
A. Excessive urinary output
B. Abdominal distention
C. Increased reflexes
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Abdominal distention. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can lead to gastrointestinal issues, such as decreased bowel motility, which can result in abdominal distention. Here's the step-by-step rationale:
1. Hypokalemia can cause smooth muscle weakness, leading to decreased bowel motility.
2. Decreased bowel motility can result in the accumulation of gas and fluid in the intestines, causing abdominal distention.
3. Monitoring for abdominal distention is crucial as it can indicate potential complications like bowel obstruction or ileus.
Summary:
A: Excessive urinary output is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes or diuretic use, not specifically related to hypokalemia.
C: Increased reflexes are not typically associated with hypokalemia; instead, hyporeflexia may be seen in severe cases.
D: Hyperactive bowel sounds are more indicative of conditions like gastroenteritis or bowel obstruction, not directly related to
Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care for a 25-yr-old male patient with a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
A. Encourage the patient to express concerns and ask questions about IBS.
B. Suggest that the patient increase the intake of milk and other dairy products.
C. Teach the patient to avoid using nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D. Teach the patient about the use of alosetron (Lotronex) to reduce IBS symptoms.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Encouraging the patient to express concerns and ask questions about IBS is important for providing emotional support and promoting understanding.
Step 2: This action shows empathy and fosters a therapeutic relationship, which can help the patient cope with the new diagnosis.
Step 3: By expressing concerns and asking questions, the patient can gain knowledge about IBS and actively participate in their care.
Step 4: This approach aligns with patient-centered care principles and empowers the patient to be involved in decision-making regarding their health.
Summary:
- Option B is incorrect as increasing intake of dairy products can exacerbate IBS symptoms in some individuals.
- Option C is incorrect as avoiding NSAIDs is generally recommended for IBS patients due to potential gastrointestinal side effects.
- Option D is incorrect as alosetron is a medication with potential serious side effects and should not be the first-line treatment for IBS.
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 4 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
