You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 34-year-old married daycare worker comes to your office, complaining of severe pelvic pain for the last 6 hours. She states that the pain was at first cramp-like but is now sharp. Nothing makes the pain better or worse. She has had no vaginal bleeding or discharge. She has had no pain with urination. She has had some nausea for the last few days but denies vomiting, constipation, or diarrhea. She states she feels so bad that when she stands up she has fainted. Her past medical history consists of two prior cesarean sections and an appendectomy. She is married and has two children. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her parents are both healthy. On examination you find a pale young woman who is obviously in a great deal of pain. She is lying on her right side with her eyes closed. Her blood pressure is 90/60 and her pulse is 110. She is afebrile. She has bowel sounds and her abdomen is soft. The speculum examination reveals a bluish cervix but no blood or purulent discharge at the os. There is a mild amount of tenderness with palpation of the cervix. The uterus is nongravid but the right adnexal area is swollen and very tender. Urine analysis is normal and the urine pregnancy test is pending. What type of adnexal disorder is causing her pain?
A. Ovarian cysts
B. Tubal pregnancy
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Tubal pregnancy
The correct answer is B: Tubal pregnancy. The patient's presentation is concerning for an ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. The sharp pelvic pain, history of fainting, and tender adnexal area are classic signs of a tubal pregnancy. The absence of vaginal bleeding or discharge makes other causes less likely. Ovarian cysts would typically present with more gradual onset and less severe pain. Pelvic inflammatory disease usually presents with vaginal discharge and fever, which are not present in this case. The patient's history of two prior cesarean sections and symptoms of nausea are also supportive of a tubal pregnancy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent rupture and life-threatening bleeding.
Question 2
A nurse cares for a client who has packing inserted for posterior nasal bleeding. What action would the nurse take first?
A. Assess the client’s pain level.
B. Keep the client’s head elevated.
C. Teach the client about the causes of nasal bleeding.
D. Assess the client’s airway.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Assess the client’s airway.
The correct answer is D: Assess the client's airway. This is the priority action because airway patency is always the top priority in any emergency situation. In this case, the packing for posterior nasal bleeding could potentially obstruct the client's airway, leading to respiratory distress or compromise. By assessing the client's airway first, the nurse can ensure that the client is able to breathe effectively.
Choice A: Assessing the client's pain level is important but not the first priority in this situation.
Choice B: Keeping the client's head elevated may be beneficial, but it is not the immediate priority over assessing the airway.
Choice C: Teaching the client about the causes of nasal bleeding is important for education but not urgent in this situation.
Question 3
A 52-year-old woman sustaining 50% total body surface burns in an explosion. She has burns around the chest and both upper arms. Adequate resuscitation is initiate She is nasotracheally intubated and is being mechanically ventilate Her CarboxyHb level is 10%. Her arterial blood gas reveals PaO2 of 40mmHg, PaCO2 of 60mmHg, and pH of 7.25. Appropriate immediate management at the time is to
A. "Ensure adequate tissue perfusion"
B. Increase the rate of fluid resuscitation
C. Add PEEP
D. Reassess for the presence of pneumothorax
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "Ensure adequate tissue perfusion"
The correct answer is A: "Ensure adequate tissue perfusion." In this scenario, the patient has sustained significant burns and is showing signs of respiratory distress with low PaO2, high PaCO2, and acidosis. Ensuring adequate tissue perfusion is crucial to optimize oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be achieved by optimizing hemodynamics, fluid resuscitation, and maintaining a balance between oxygen delivery and consumption. Increasing fluid resuscitation (choice B) may worsen the patient's respiratory status by causing fluid overload. Adding PEEP (choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but addressing tissue perfusion is more critical in this scenario. Reassessing for the presence of pneumothorax (choice D) is important but not the immediate priority in this case.
Question 4
A 52-year-old woman sustaining 50% total body surface burns in an explosion. She has burns around the chest and both upper arms. Adequate resuscitation is initiate She is nasotracheally intubated and is being mechanically ventilate Her CarboxyHb level is 10%. Her arterial blood gas reveals PaO2 of 40mmHg, PaCO2 of 60mmHg, and pH of 7.25. Appropriate immediate management at the time is to
A. "Ensure adequate tissue perfusion"
B. Increase the rate of fluid resuscitation
C. Add PEEP
D. Reassess for the presence of pneumothorax
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "Ensure adequate tissue perfusion"
The correct answer is A: "Ensure adequate tissue perfusion." In this scenario, the patient has sustained significant burns and is showing signs of respiratory distress with low PaO2, high PaCO2, and acidosis. Ensuring adequate tissue perfusion is crucial to optimize oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be achieved by optimizing hemodynamics, fluid resuscitation, and maintaining a balance between oxygen delivery and consumption. Increasing fluid resuscitation (choice B) may worsen the patient's respiratory status by causing fluid overload. Adding PEEP (choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but addressing tissue perfusion is more critical in this scenario. Reassessing for the presence of pneumothorax (choice D) is important but not the immediate priority in this case.
Question 5
To administer a soap-suds enema to an adult before abdominal surgery, the nurse should:
A. Fill the container with cold water to soothe the intestinal mucosa.
B. Insert the tip of the rectal tube 1-2 inches into the rectum
C. Raise the fluid container 12-18 inches above the patient’s anus
D. Remove and place the rectal tube several times during the procedure
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Raise the fluid container 12-18 inches above the patient’s anus
The correct answer is C because raising the fluid container 12-18 inches above the patient's anus ensures a slow, controlled flow of the enema solution into the rectum, allowing for proper cleansing without causing discomfort or injury. This height creates enough pressure to facilitate the flow but prevents excessive pressure that could lead to bowel perforation.
Choice A is incorrect because cold water can cause discomfort and cramping, while warm water is recommended for its soothing effect. Choice B is incorrect as the rectal tube should be inserted 3-4 inches into the rectum to ensure proper administration. Choice D is incorrect as removing and reinserting the rectal tube multiple times can disrupt the flow and increase the risk of introducing air into the rectum.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
When obtaining an oral temperature, after requesting the patient to open the mouth, the probe is gently inserted into:
A. Anterior sublingual cavity
B. Lateral sublingual density
C. Superior lingual mucosity
D. Posterior sublingual pocket
Correct answer:
Posterior sublingual pocket, is correct because this is the optimal site for accurate oral temperature measurement. Located under the tongue near the sublingual arteries, it reflects core body temperature due to rich blood supply. Anterior sublingual cavity, is too close to the mouths front, where air exposure lowers readings. Lateral sublingual density, is vague and not a recognized anatomical term. Superior lingual mucosity, incorrectly suggests the tongues upper surface, which is not used. The posterior sublingual pocket ensures the probe is secure and insulated, minimizing external influence. Nursing protocols emphasize placing the probe deep under the tongue and instructing the patient to close their mouth, supporting D as the precise location for reliable results.
A nurse is caring for a client with a serious bacterial infection. The client is dehydrated. Knowledge of the physical effects of the infection would support which of the following nursing diagnoses?
A. High Risk for Infection
B. Excess Fluid Volume
C. Risk for Imbalanced Body Temperature
D. Risk for Latex Allergy Response
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Risk for Imbalanced Body Temperature. When a client has a serious bacterial infection, the body's response includes fever, which can lead to an imbalance in body temperature regulation. Dehydration can exacerbate this issue. Nursing diagnosis C is the most appropriate as it directly relates to the physical effects of the infection, helping the nurse anticipate and address potential complications.
Choice A, High Risk for Infection, is not the best choice as the client already has a bacterial infection, so the risk is not high but rather already present. Choice B, Excess Fluid Volume, is unlikely in a dehydrated client. Choice D, Risk for Latex Allergy Response, is not related to the physical effects of the bacterial infection and dehydration.
The process of ____________ helps communities prevent disease.
A. Sterilization
B. Sanitation
C. Asepsis
D. Immunity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Sanitation. Sanitation involves maintaining cleanliness and hygiene to prevent the spread of disease-causing germs in communities. By improving sanitation practices such as proper waste disposal, clean water supply, and personal hygiene, communities can effectively prevent the transmission of diseases.
A: Sterilization is the process of eliminating all microorganisms, including beneficial ones, and is more focused on medical settings rather than community disease prevention.
C: Asepsis refers to the absence of disease-causing microorganisms and is typically used in medical settings to prevent infections during procedures.
D: Immunity is the body's ability to resist infections and diseases, which is not a process but a biological mechanism.
When obtaining an oral temperature, after requesting the patient to open the mouth, the probe is gently inserted into:
A. Anterior sublingual cavity
B. Lateral sublingual density
C. Superior lingual mucosity
D. Posterior sublingual pocket
Correct answer:
Posterior sublingual pocket, is correct because this is the optimal site for accurate oral temperature measurement. Located under the tongue near the sublingual arteries, it reflects core body temperature due to rich blood supply. Anterior sublingual cavity, is too close to the mouths front, where air exposure lowers readings. Lateral sublingual density, is vague and not a recognized anatomical term. Superior lingual mucosity, incorrectly suggests the tongues upper surface, which is not used. The posterior sublingual pocket ensures the probe is secure and insulated, minimizing external influence. Nursing protocols emphasize placing the probe deep under the tongue and instructing the patient to close their mouth, supporting D as the precise location for reliable results.
The mother of a 3-month-old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning, the nurse finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short time, hungry again. What other information would the nurse want to have?
A. Infant's sleeping position
B. Sibling history of eating disorders
C. Amount of background noise when eating
D. Presence of dyspnea or diaphoresis when sucking
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Presence of dyspnea or diaphoresis when sucking. This information is crucial as it could indicate a medical issue such as a respiratory problem or heart condition affecting the baby's ability to feed properly, leading to poor weight gain. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) during sucking are red flags that require immediate medical attention.
A: The infant's sleeping position is important for preventing Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) but not directly related to the feeding issue.
B: Sibling history of eating disorders may not be relevant to the current infant's feeding difficulties.
C: Amount of background noise when eating is unlikely to be the primary factor affecting the infant's weight gain issue.
A 23 year old construction worker is brought to the ED after falling more than 9 meters from scaffolding. He is complaining bitterly of lower abdominal and lower limb pain, and has obvious deformity of both lower legs with bilateral open tibial fractures. Which one of the following statements concerning this patient is true?
A. Pelvic injury can be ruled out based on the mechanism of injury
B. Blood loss from the lower limb is most likely cause of his hypotension
C. Spinal cord injury is the most likely cause of his hypotension
D. X-ray of the chest and pelvis are important adjuncts in his assessment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because X-ray of the chest and pelvis are important adjuncts in assessing trauma patients to rule out life-threatening injuries like pneumothorax, hemothorax, pelvic fractures, etc. This patient's mechanism of injury suggests the possibility of pelvic injury (Choice A is incorrect). While blood loss from the lower limbs could contribute to hypotension, other causes like internal bleeding should also be considered (Choice B is incorrect). Spinal cord injury is less likely to be the cause of hypotension in this case compared to hemorrhage or other traumatic injuries (Choice C is incorrect). In summary, obtaining X-rays of the chest and pelvis is crucial in the initial assessment of trauma patients to identify potentially life-threatening injuries.
After graduation from an accredited program in nursing and successfully passing the NCLEX, what gives the nurse a legal right to practice?
A. enrolling in an advanced degree program
B. filing NCLEX results in the county of residence
C. being licensed by the State Board of Nursing
D. having a signed letter confirming graduation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because being licensed by the State Board of Nursing is the legal requirement to practice as a nurse. The State Board of Nursing grants the license after confirming the candidate's qualifications, including graduation from an accredited program and passing the NCLEX. This license signifies that the nurse has met the necessary standards to practice safely and competently.
A: Enrolling in an advanced degree program is not relevant to the legal right to practice as a nurse.
B: Filing NCLEX results in the county of residence is a procedural step and does not grant the legal right to practice.
D: Having a signed letter confirming graduation is not sufficient to practice as a nurse; licensure by the State Board of Nursing is the key requirement.
Very sensitive methods for detecting hearing loss include which of the following?
A. The whisper test
B. The finger rub test
C. The tuning fork test
D. Audiometric testing
Correct answer:
Audiometric testing is a very sensitive method for detecting hearing loss. It involves a series of tests that measure a person's ability to hear sounds at various frequencies and volumes. These tests can detect even subtle changes in hearing ability and provide detailed information on the type and degree of hearing loss. The whisper test and finger rub test are basic screening tests and are not as sensitive or comprehensive as audiometric testing. The tuning fork test is also used in evaluating hearing loss, but it is not as accurate or sensitive as audiometric testing. Overall, audiometric testing is considered the gold standard for diagnosing hearing loss due to its high sensitivity and ability to provide detailed information on the individual's hearing capabilities.
Scoliosis can be classified as structural or functional. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of structural scoliosis?
A. Most cases are idiopathic
B. It is reversible
C. Subtype of structural scoliosis includes idiopathic
D. Subtypes of structural scoliosis include congenital or acquired
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: It is reversible. Structural scoliosis involves irreversible changes in the spine's alignment, such as rotation and curvature due to factors like abnormal growth or spinal deformities. Reversibility is not a characteristic of structural scoliosis.
A: Most cases are idiopathic - This is a characteristic of structural scoliosis as idiopathic scoliosis is the most common type.
C: Subtype of structural scoliosis includes idiopathic - This supports the characteristic of idiopathic scoliosis within the structural category.
D: Subtypes of structural scoliosis include congenital or acquired - This is correct as structural scoliosis can be caused by congenital abnormalities or acquired conditions, supporting the definition of structural scoliosis.
A 23 year old construction worker is brought to the ED after falling more than 9 meters from scaffolding. He is complaining bitterly of lower abdominal and lower limb pain, and has obvious deformity of both lower legs with bilateral open tibial fractures. Which one of the following statements concerning this patient is true?
A. Pelvic injury can be ruled out based on the mechanism of injury
B. Blood loss from the lower limb is most likely cause of his hypotension
C. Spinal cord injury is the most likely cause of his hypotension
D. X-ray of the chest and pelvis are important adjuncts in his assessment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because X-ray of the chest and pelvis are important adjuncts in assessing trauma patients to rule out life-threatening injuries like pneumothorax, hemothorax, pelvic fractures, etc. This patient's mechanism of injury suggests the possibility of pelvic injury (Choice A is incorrect). While blood loss from the lower limbs could contribute to hypotension, other causes like internal bleeding should also be considered (Choice B is incorrect). Spinal cord injury is less likely to be the cause of hypotension in this case compared to hemorrhage or other traumatic injuries (Choice C is incorrect). In summary, obtaining X-rays of the chest and pelvis is crucial in the initial assessment of trauma patients to identify potentially life-threatening injuries.
RN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 37 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
