RN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 33

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RN exams fundamentals practice questions set 33

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

Which of the following nursing groups provides a definition and scope of practice for nursing?

  1. A. ICN
  2. B. AAN
  3. C. ANA
  4. D. The Joint Commission
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — ANA

The correct answer is C: ANA. The American Nurses Association (ANA) provides a comprehensive definition and scope of practice for nursing in the United States. ANA establishes standards, guidelines, and policies to guide nursing practice and ensure quality patient care. Incorrect choices: A: ICN - The International Council of Nurses (ICN) is a global organization that represents nurses worldwide, but it does not specifically define the scope of nursing practice in the U.S. B: AAN - The American Academy of Nursing (AAN) is an organization that focuses on recognizing nursing excellence and leadership, but it does not set standards for nursing practice. D: The Joint Commission - The Joint Commission is a healthcare accreditation organization that focuses on patient safety and quality improvement, but it does not provide a specific definition and scope of practice for nursing.

Question 2

A nurse is positioning a sterile drape to extend the working area when performing a urinary catheterization. Which of the following is an appropriate technique for this procedure?

  1. A. Use sterile gloves to handle the entire drape surface.
  2. B. Fold the lower edges of the drape over the sterile-gloved hands.
  3. C. Touch only the outer two inches of the drape when not wearing sterile gloves.
  4. D. When reaching over the drape do not allow clothing to touch the drape.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Use sterile gloves to handle the entire drape surface.

The correct answer is A because using sterile gloves to handle the entire drape surface ensures the sterility of the working area during the urinary catheterization procedure. By using sterile gloves, the nurse maintains aseptic technique and prevents contamination of the sterile field. Choice B is incorrect because folding the lower edges of the drape over the sterile-gloved hands may lead to contamination of the sterile field as the gloves are not in direct contact with the drape surface. Choice C is incorrect because touching only the outer two inches of the drape when not wearing sterile gloves does not ensure complete sterility and may still lead to contamination of the working area. Choice D is incorrect because allowing clothing to touch the drape can introduce contaminants to the sterile field, compromising the aseptic technique required for the procedure.

Question 3

One way for a nursing assistant to communicate effectively with a resident who has a visual impairment is to

  1. A. Wait until the resident speaks to her before identifying herself
  2. B. Touch the resident on the arm before identifying herself to let her know the NA is there
  3. C. Speak as little as possible while providing care
  4. D. Use the face of an imaginary clock to explain the position of objects
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Touch the resident on the arm before identifying herself to let her know the NA is there

The correct answer is B. By touching the resident on the arm before identifying herself, the nursing assistant can provide a physical cue to alert the resident of her presence. This gesture is important for someone with visual impairment as it helps establish trust and a connection before communication begins. It also respects the resident's personal space and avoids startling them. Choice A is incorrect because waiting for the resident to speak may lead to confusion and frustration, especially if the resident is not aware of the assistant's presence. Choice C is incorrect as it does not promote effective communication and may make the resident feel neglected or isolated. Choice D is incorrect as using an imaginary clock face to explain the position of objects may be confusing and not as effective in establishing immediate communication and connection with the resident.

Question 4

Which one of the following statement is true?

  1. A. Hypotonic fluids should be used to limit brain edema in patients with severe head injury
  2. B. Elevated intracranial pressure will not affect cerebral perfusion
  3. C. CSF cannot be displaced from cranial vault
  4. D. Cerebral blood flow is increased when PaCO2 is below 30mmHg --> below 50mmHg
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Cerebral blood flow is increased when PaCO2 is below 30mmHg --> below 50mmHg

The correct answer is D because cerebral blood flow is directly influenced by PaCO2 levels. When PaCO2 is below 30-50mmHg, cerebral blood vessels constrict, leading to decreased cerebral blood flow. This vasoconstriction is a protective mechanism to prevent excessive blood flow and maintain stable cerebral perfusion pressure. Therefore, the statement that cerebral blood flow is increased when PaCO2 is below 30-50mmHg is true. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Hypotonic fluids can exacerbate brain edema by causing fluid shifts, so they should not be used to limit brain edema in severe head injury. B: Elevated intracranial pressure impairs cerebral perfusion due to decreased perfusion pressure gradient, leading to decreased cerebral blood flow. C: CSF can be displaced from the cranial vault due to changes in intracranial pressure and volume shifts.

Question 5

Thyroid hormones primarily regulate the following:

  1. A. Heart rate and respiration
  2. B. Bile production and potassium
  3. C. Kidney and liver function
  4. D. Metabolism and growth
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Metabolism and growth

The correct answer is D: Metabolism and growth. Thyroid hormones, such as T3 and T4, play a crucial role in regulating metabolism by influencing the body's energy production and consumption. They also help in the growth and development of various tissues and organs. This is supported by scientific research and physiological understanding. Explanation for other choices: A: Heart rate and respiration - While thyroid hormones can indirectly influence heart rate and respiration through their effects on metabolism, they are not the primary regulators of these functions. B: Bile production and potassium - Thyroid hormones do not have a direct role in regulating bile production or potassium levels in the body. C: Kidney and liver function - While thyroid hormones can affect kidney and liver function to some extent, their primary role lies in metabolism and growth regulation.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

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Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.

Question 6

The nurse is preparing to assess a patient's blood pressure. Which action is essential for obtaining an accurate reading?

  1. A. Positioning the patient's arm above the level of the heart.
  2. B. Using a cuff that covers two-thirds of the patient's upper arm.
  3. C. Deflating the cuff at a rate of 5-10 mm Hg per second.
  4. D. Having the patient stand during the measurement.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

During an oral examination of a 4-year-old Native-American child, the nurse notices that her uvula is partially split. Which of these statements is accurate?

  1. A. This condition is a cleft palate and is common in Native Americans.
  2. B. A bifid uvula may occur in some Native-American groups.
  3. C. This condition is due to an injury and should be reported to the authorities.
  4. D. A bifid uvula is palatinus, which frequently occurs in Native Americans.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

Which finding in a patient with asthma indicates a need for immediate intervention?

  1. A. Use of accessory muscles during respiration.
  2. B. Oxygen saturation of 92% on room air.
  3. C. Mild expiratory wheezing.
  4. D. Peak expiratory flow rate of 85% of personal best.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

The nurse is assessing a patient's cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). Which action is most appropriate?

  1. A. Ask the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance.
  2. B. Assess the patient's ability to chew and detect light touch on the face.
  3. C. Check for gag reflex and swallowing.
  4. D. Evaluate the patient's hearing ability.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

A client with bronchitis is experiencing increased mucus production. Which intervention is most effective in promoting mucus clearance?

  1. A. Encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day.
  2. B. Administering prescribed antitussive medication.
  3. C. Positioning the client in a high Fowler's position.
  4. D. Limiting activity to conserve energy.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

An adult blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg is:

  1. A. Prehypertension
  2. B. Hypotensive
  3. C. Normal
  4. D. Hypertensive
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

A physical therapist uses an incentive spirometer with a patient post-thoracic surgery. The PRIMARY purpose of this intervention is to:

  1. A. Promote relaxation.
  2. B. Improve inspiratory muscle strength.
  3. C. Reduce pain during breathing.
  4. D. Prevent pulmonary complications.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

An adult blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg is:

  1. A. Prehypertension
  2. B. Hypotensive
  3. C. Normal
  4. D. Hypertensive
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

The nurse is performing a breast examination. Which of these statements best describes the correct procedure to use when screening for nipple and skin retraction during a breast examination? Have the woman:

  1. A. Bend over and touch her toes.
  2. B. Lie down on her left side and notice any retraction.
  3. C. Shift from a supine position to a standing position, and note any lag or retraction.
  4. D. Slowly lift her arms above her head, and note any retraction or lag in movement.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true of chest tubes?

  1. A. The drainage system must be kept above the level of the resident's chest.
  2. B. The chest drainage must be observed for amount and color.
  3. C. The tubing should be kinked.
  4. D. Chest tubes will only be in the front of the body
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these RN exams fundamentals questions

RN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 33 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.