RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 93
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 93
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Cyrill with severe head trauma sustained in a car accident is admitted to the intensive care unit. Thirty-six hours later, the client's urine output suddenly rises above 200 ml/hour, leading the nurse to suspect diabetes insipidus. Which laboratory findings support the nurse's suspicion of diabetes insipidus?
A. Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels
B. Below-normal urine and serum osmolality levels
C. Above-normal urine osmolality level, below-normal serum osmolality level
D. Below-normal urine osmolality level, above-normal serum osmolality level
The correct answer is D. Diabetes insipidus results from inadequate production or action of antidiuretic hormone, leading to excessive urine output and dilute urine. In this case, the sudden rise in urine output above 200 ml/hour indicates a large volume of dilute urine being excreted. Therefore, the urine osmolality will be low (below normal) due to its diluteness. On the other hand, the serum osmolality will be high (above normal) because the body is unable to retain water properly, leading to dehydration and concentration of solutes in the blood. This imbalance in osmolality levels between urine and serum supports the nurse's suspicion of diabetes insipidus.
Incorrect choices:
A: Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels - This is incorrect because in diabetes insipidus, urine osmolality is low (dilute) and serum osmolality is high.
B: Below-normal urine and serum os
Question 2
Using the UNICEF Socio-Ecological Model, which statement is an example of a community health center working at the organizational level to promote health care?
A. Teaching a client how to self-administer insulin injections
B. Assisting a new mother with breastfeeding
C. Treating all clients regardless of their ability to pay
D. Lobbying to ensure health care for transgender clients
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Treating all clients regardless of their ability to pay
The correct answer is C because treating all clients regardless of their ability to pay aligns with the organizational level of the UNICEF Socio-Ecological Model. This demonstrates a commitment to providing equitable access to healthcare services within the community health center. By offering care regardless of financial resources, the center addresses social determinants of health, promotes health equity, and contributes to overall community well-being.
Choice A, teaching a client to self-administer insulin injections, is an example of an individual-level intervention. Choice B, assisting a new mother with breastfeeding, is a behavioral-level intervention. Choice D, lobbying for health care for transgender clients, pertains to policy-level advocacy. These choices do not directly address organizational-level efforts to promote health care within a community health center.
Question 3
Which of the following public health change would lead to a longer life span?
A. Smoking cessation
B. Limiting physical activity
C. Eat only one vegetable a day
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Smoking cessation
The correct answer is A: Smoking cessation. Smoking cessation would lead to a longer life span due to the numerous harmful effects of smoking on health, such as increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, respiratory problems, and cancer. Quitting smoking reduces these risks and improves overall health, thus increasing life expectancy.
Choice B, limiting physical activity, would have a negative impact on health as regular physical activity is essential for maintaining a healthy lifestyle and preventing chronic diseases.
Choice C, eating only one vegetable a day, would not support optimal health as a varied and balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables is important for overall well-being and longevity.
In summary, smoking cessation is the most effective public health change to increase life span compared to limiting physical activity or restricting vegetable intake.
Question 4
When teaching a patient with binge-purge bulimia, the nurse should give priority to information about:
A. Self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake.
B. Establishing the desired daily weight gain.
C. Symptoms of hypokalemia.
D. Self-esteem maintenance
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Symptoms of hypokalemia.
The correct answer is C: Symptoms of hypokalemia. This is the priority because individuals with binge-purge bulimia often have electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Educating the patient on recognizing symptoms of hypokalemia, such as weakness, fatigue, and irregular heartbeats, is crucial for early intervention.
A: Self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake is important but not the priority when dealing with potential life-threatening complications like hypokalemia.
B: Establishing the desired daily weight gain is not appropriate for individuals with binge-purge bulimia as the focus should be on addressing the underlying psychological issues rather than weight gain.
D: Self-esteem maintenance is important in the long term but does not take precedence over addressing immediate health risks such as hypokalemia.
Question 5
Ethnographic research is directed toward understanding a culture through __________ observation.
A. naturalistic
B. participant
C. systematic
D. structured
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — participant
Ethnographic research is directed toward understanding a culture through participant observation. This type of observation involves the researcher immersing themselves in the culture being studied, actively participating in the daily activities and interactions of the group being studied. Through participant observation, researchers can gain a deep and nuanced understanding of the culture from the inside. Choice A, naturalistic observation, typically refers to observing subjects in their natural environment without interference, but it does not involve actively participating in the culture. Choice C, systematic observation, focuses on carefully planned and structured data collection methods but may not involve direct participation. Choice D, structured observation, implies a predefined set of guidelines for observation but lacks the immersive aspect of participant observation.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
Dr. Anderson wants to conduct a study to determine the cause-and-effect relationship between domestic violence and anger in children. Dr. Anderson should use a(n) __________ design.
A. structured
B. observational
C. correlational
D. experimental
Correct answer:
Dr. Anderson should use an experimental design to determine the cause-and-effect relationship between domestic violence and anger in children. In an experimental design, the researcher manipulates the independent variable (in this case, exposure to domestic violence) to observe its effect on the dependent variable (anger in children). This design allows for the establishment of a cause-and-effect relationship by controlling for other variables that may influence the outcomes. Observational design (Choice B) involves observing subjects in their natural environment without interference, correlational design (Choice C) examines the relationship between variables without manipulating them, and structured design (Choice A) typically refers to a study with predetermined procedures and data collection methods, which may not be suitable for establishing cause-and-effect relationships.
The nurse is answering the phone in the OB-GYN clinic. The person asks, 'I am a lesbian. Can an OB-GYN provider care for me?' What is the nurse's best response?
A. All LGBTQIA+ persons are welcome and can be treated by an OB-GYN provider.'
B. We can see you if you will be the person in the relationship that will get pregnant.'
C. We suggest you see a provider that specializes in LGBTQIA+ persons.'
D. Our OB-GYN provider can give you gynecologic care but not pregnancy care.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it demonstrates inclusivity and respect for the individual's identity. The response affirms that all LGBTQIA+ persons are welcome and can receive care from an OB-GYN provider, promoting a safe and supportive environment. This answer prioritizes patient-centered care and emphasizes the provider's commitment to serving diverse populations.
Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the individual's role in a relationship determines their eligibility for care, which is discriminatory. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests the individual needs a specialized provider solely based on their sexual orientation, which is not necessary for routine gynecologic care. Choice D is incorrect as it limits the scope of care based on the individual's sexual orientation, which goes against ethical principles of providing comprehensive healthcare to all individuals.
A client who is being treated for chronic kidney disease complains to the health-care provider that he does not like the food available to him while hospitalized. The health-care provider insists that the client strictly adhere to the diet plan. What action can be expected if the client uses the defense mechanism of displacement?
A. The client assertively confronts the health-care provider.
B. The client insists on being discharged and goes for a long, brisk walk.
C. The client snaps at the nurse and criticizes the nursing care provided.
D. The client hides his anger by explaining the logical reasoning for the diet to his spouse.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. Displacement is a defense mechanism where negative feelings are redirected from the original source to a less threatening target. In this scenario, the client's anger towards the health-care provider is redirected towards the nurse, resulting in snapping and criticism. This behavior is a classic example of displacement.
A: Assertively confronting the health-care provider does not align with displacement. It would involve directly addressing the source of conflict.
B: Insisting on discharge and going for a walk is more of a flight response rather than displacement.
D: Hiding anger by explaining the diet to the spouse is not displacement; it's more about rationalizing the situation.
In summary, choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the use of displacement as a defense mechanism in response to the client's frustration with the diet plan.
Which of the following is one of the functions that the circulatory system performs?
A. Senses and interprets information from the environment
B. Cushions the brain and spinal cord
C. Allows humans to reproduce
D. Transports oxygen and hormones to cells
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Transports oxygen and hormones to cells. The circulatory system includes the heart, blood vessels, and blood. The main function is to transport oxygen and nutrients to cells and remove waste products. Oxygen is carried by red blood cells, while hormones are transported in the bloodstream.
A: Senses and interprets information from the environment - This function is carried out by the nervous system, particularly the sensory organs like eyes and ears.
B: Cushions the brain and spinal cord - This function is performed by the cerebrospinal fluid and protective structures like the skull and vertebrae.
C: Allows humans to reproduce - Reproduction is controlled by the reproductive system, not the circulatory system.
In summary, the circulatory system's primary function is to transport oxygen and hormones to cells, making option D the correct choice.
__________ is a disorder of the urinary system in which the kidneys cannot filter some waste products.
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Urinary incontinence
D. End-stage renal disease
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Chronic renal failure. Chronic renal failure is a disorder of the urinary system where the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood. This leads to a buildup of waste products and toxins in the body, causing various symptoms and complications.
Rationale:
1. Chronic renal failure specifically refers to the long-term and progressive decline in kidney function, leading to impaired waste filtration.
2. Urinary tract infection (B) is an infection in any part of the urinary system, not a disorder of kidney filtration.
3. Urinary incontinence (C) is the inability to control urination, not related to kidney filtration.
4. End-stage renal disease (D) is the final stage of chronic renal failure where the kidneys have lost most of their function, making it a severe consequence of chronic renal failure, not the disorder itself.
In providing prenatal care to a pregnant patient, what does the nurse teach the expectant mother?
A. Calcium intake is especially important in the first trimester.
B. Protein intake needs to decrease to preserve kidney function.
C. Folic acid is needed to help prevent birth defects and anemia.
D. Extra vitamins and minerals should be taken as much as possible.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because folic acid is crucial in preventing neural tube defects and anemia in the developing fetus. The nurse should teach the expectant mother about the importance of taking folic acid supplements before and during pregnancy. Folic acid is essential for proper cell division and growth, reducing the risk of birth defects.
Choice A is incorrect because calcium intake is important throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice B is incorrect as protein intake should be adequate to support maternal and fetal growth, not decreased. Choice D is incorrect as excessive intake of vitamins and minerals can be harmful to the mother and the baby.
In summary, the expectant mother should be educated on the importance of folic acid supplementation to prevent birth defects and anemia, while also ensuring a balanced diet with all essential nutrients.
The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of COPD about pursed-lip breathing. What is the primary benefit of this technique?
A. Increases oxygen intake.
B. Reduces airway resistance.
C. Slows the respiratory rate.
D. Prevents hyperventilation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Reduces airway resistance. Pursed-lip breathing helps to slow down the exhalation process, which in turn reduces the amount of air trapped in the lungs and decreases airway resistance. This technique promotes better oxygen exchange and helps the client breathe more efficiently.
A: Increases oxygen intake - Pursed-lip breathing does not directly increase oxygen intake but rather improves the efficiency of oxygen exchange by reducing airway resistance.
C: Slows the respiratory rate - While pursed-lip breathing may slow down the breathing pattern, the primary benefit is the reduction of airway resistance, not solely slowing the respiratory rate.
D: Prevents hyperventilation - Pursed-lip breathing can help prevent hyperventilation by promoting more controlled breathing, but the primary benefit is the reduction of airway resistance for clients with COPD.
Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
A. Neutralization
B. Precipitation
C. Complement binding
D. Double immune diffusion
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this scenario, the antibotulinic serum of types A, B, and E were introduced to neutralize the botulinum toxin in the test specimen. The serological reaction applied here involves the neutralization of the toxin by the specific antibodies present in the serum. This process prevents the toxin from causing harm to the mice.
Summary of other choices:
B: Precipitation - This involves the formation of insoluble complexes between antigen and antibody, not the specific neutralization seen in this case.
C: Complement binding - This involves activation of the complement system leading to cell lysis, not the direct neutralization of toxin.
D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to determine the presence of specific antibodies or antigens based on their diffusion patterns, not the neutralization of toxin as seen in this scenario.
In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can impair glycaemia control:
A. Prednisolone
B. Prazosin
C. Paracetamol
D. Phenytoin
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why choice A (Prednisolone) is correct:
1. Prednisolone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing insulin resistance.
2. This drug can lead to elevated blood glucose levels and worsen glycemic control in diabetic patients.
3. Prednisolone can counteract the effects of insulin, making it difficult to maintain stable blood sugar levels.
4. Therefore, in a patient with diabetes mellitus on insulin therapy, the addition of prednisolone can impair glycemic control.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Prazosin is an alpha-blocker used to treat hypertension, it does not directly affect glycemia control.
C: Paracetamol is an analgesic with no direct impact on blood glucose levels.
D: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that does not interfere with glycemic control in diabetes mellitus patients on insulin therapy.
A patient preparing for surgery has moderate anxiety and is unable to understand preoperative information. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Reassure the patient that all nurses are skilled in providing postoperative care.
B. Present the information again in a calm manner using simple language.
C. Tell the patient that staff is prepared to promote recovery.
D. Encourage the patient to express feelings to family.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because presenting the information again in a calm manner using simple language is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with moderate anxiety who is unable to understand preoperative information. This approach helps to address the patient's anxiety by providing clear and concise information in a way that is easier for them to comprehend. Reassuring the patient about postoperative care (choice A) does not directly address the patient's current state of anxiety and lack of understanding. Telling the patient that staff is prepared to promote recovery (choice C) does not provide the necessary information for the patient to understand the upcoming surgery. Encouraging the patient to express feelings to family (choice D) may be beneficial but does not address the main issue of the patient's inability to understand preoperative information.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 93 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
