RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 79
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 79
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract, associated with abnormal apical position, is
A. Laryngeal stridor
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Choanal atresia
D. Tracheo-bronchi fistula
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Choanal atresia
The correct answer is C: Choanal atresia. The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract with abnormal apical position is typically associated with choanal atresia, which is a blockage or narrowing of the back of the nasal passage. This condition can lead to respiratory distress in newborns due to difficulty breathing through the nose.
Explanation:
1. Laryngeal stridor (Choice A) is a high-pitched noise during breathing and is not typically associated with abnormal apical position.
2. Diaphragmatic hernia (Choice B) is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, but it is not related to abnormal apical position.
3. Tracheo-bronchi fistula (Choice D) is an abnormal connection between the trachea and bronchi, which is not associated with abnormal apical position.
In summary, choanal atresia is the correct answer because it fits the description of
Question 2
Which of the following is a common physical sign of anorexia nervosa?
A. Hypoglycemia and tachycardia.
B. Severe weight loss and dry skin.
C. Increased appetite and excessive weight gain.
D. High blood pressure and rapid heart rate.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Severe weight loss and dry skin.
The correct answer is B: Severe weight loss and dry skin. In anorexia nervosa, individuals typically experience significant weight loss due to severe restriction of food intake. This leads to a low body weight, which is a key physical sign of the disorder. Dry skin is also common in anorexia nervosa due to malnutrition.
Rationale:
A: Hypoglycemia and tachycardia are not specific physical signs of anorexia nervosa. While tachycardia (rapid heart rate) can occur due to the stress on the body, it is not as specific as severe weight loss.
C: Increased appetite and excessive weight gain are not characteristic of anorexia nervosa, as individuals with this disorder typically have a distorted body image and fear gaining weight.
D: High blood pressure and rapid heart rate are not typical physical signs of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is more commonly associated with low blood pressure due to mal
Question 3
A __________ is a set of learned beliefs, values, and behaviors.
A. Community
B. Civilization
C. Culture
D. Cultivation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Culture
The correct answer is C: Culture. Culture refers to the set of learned beliefs, values, and behaviors shared by a group of people. It encompasses language, traditions, customs, arts, and social norms. It shapes individuals' identities and guides their interactions within society.
Choice A, Community, refers to a group of people living in the same area. While communities may share aspects of culture, they do not fully encompass the complexity of culture itself.
Choice B, Civilization, refers to a complex society characterized by urban development, social stratification, and advanced cultural and technological achievements. While civilization may have its own culture, it is broader in scope than just cultural aspects.
Choice D, Cultivation, refers to the process of preparing and working on land for crops. It is not related to learned beliefs, values, and behaviors shared by a group of people.
Question 4
Nurse Lourdes is teaching a client recovering from addisonian crisis about the need to take fludrocortisone acetate and hydrocortisone at home. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
A. "I'll take my hydrocortisone in the late afternoon, before dinner."Â
B. "I'll take all of my hydrocortisone in the morning, right after I wake up."Â
C. "I'll take two-thirds of the dose when I wake up and one-third in the late afternoon."Â
D. "I'll take the entire dose at bedtime."Â
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — "I'll take two-thirds of the dose when I wake up and one-third in the late afternoon."Â
The correct answer is C because it demonstrates an understanding of the dosing schedule for both medications. Fludrocortisone acetate is usually taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural cortisol release, while hydrocortisone is typically taken in divided doses throughout the day to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Option C shows the client plans to take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the late afternoon, aligning with the recommended dosing schedule.
Option A is incorrect because taking hydrocortisone in the late afternoon is not ideal for mimicking the body's natural cortisol release. Option B is incorrect as taking all hydrocortisone in the morning may lead to suboptimal control of adrenal insufficiency throughout the day. Option D is incorrect because taking the entire dose at bedtime does not align with the recommended dosing schedules for these medications.
Question 5
A 20-year-old college student expresses concern over the recent appearance of genital warts, an assessment finding her primary care provider confirms as attributable to HPV infection. Which client education should be included?
A. It's important to start treatment as soon as possible, so you will receive a prescription for pills today.
B. There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
C. I recommend receiving an HPV vaccination today.
D. Unfortunately, this is going to greatly increase your chance of developing pelvic inflammatory disease.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
The correct answer is B: There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
Rationale:
1. Genital warts caused by HPV can sometimes resolve spontaneously without treatment.
2. This option emphasizes the possibility of self-resolution, which is a common occurrence.
3. Encouraging observation without immediate treatment aligns with current guidelines for managing HPV-related genital warts.
4. Avoiding unnecessary treatment helps prevent potential side effects and reduces healthcare costs.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect because immediate treatment is not always necessary for genital warts caused by HPV.
C: Incorrect because HPV vaccination does not treat existing HPV infections, including genital warts.
D: Incorrect because developing pelvic inflammatory disease is not directly related to the presence of genital warts caused by HPV.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
Which is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid?
A. Deep yellow color
B. Clear, with small white particles
C. Nitrazine test: acidic result
D. Absence of ferning
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Clear, with small white particles. Amniotic fluid is typically clear with small white particles, representing vernix caseosa. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheese-like substance that covers the skin of the fetus. It helps protect the skin and regulate body temperature. The presence of vernix particles in amniotic fluid is a normal and expected characteristic.
Incorrect choices:
A: Deep yellow color - Amniotic fluid is usually clear or slightly straw-colored. A deep yellow color may indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests fetal distress.
C: Nitrazine test: acidic result - Amniotic fluid is normally alkaline, not acidic. An acidic result may indicate infection.
D: Absence of ferning - Ferning is a characteristic pattern seen under a microscope in dried cervical mucus, not amniotic fluid. Absence of ferning in amniotic fluid is not a relevant characteristic.
The nurse working in labor and delivery is reviewing messages to be returned to clients. Which statement made by the client alerts the nurse to call that client first?
A. I'm 32 weeks pregnant and taking calcium carbonate for my heartburn. Is there anything else I can take?
B. I'm 38 weeks pregnant and taking ibuprofen for my backache. Should I take aspirin too?
C. I'm 8 weeks pregnant and taking folic acid. Will it hurt me or the baby if I stop?
D. I checked my blood glucose with a friend's machine and it was 120 mg. I'm not diabetic. Is that normal?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because taking ibuprofen during pregnancy, especially in the third trimester like at 38 weeks, can pose risks to the baby. Ibuprofen is not recommended in late pregnancy as it can lead to complications such as premature closure of a crucial blood vessel in the baby's heart. Therefore, the nurse should call this client first to educate them on the risks and advise against taking aspirin along with ibuprofen.
A: Taking calcium carbonate for heartburn during pregnancy is generally safe, so there is no urgent need to call this client first.
C: Stopping folic acid at 8 weeks may not be ideal, but it is less urgent than the potential risks associated with ibuprofen in late pregnancy.
D: Blood glucose of 120 mg may be normal, and the client's non-diabetic status indicates less urgency compared to the potential harm from mixing ibuprofen and aspirin during late pregnancy.
Which of the following adverse effects were most likely to occur during the first days of therapy with sertraline and diazepam?
A. Excitement and irritability
B. Mental confusion and anterograde amnesia
C. Excessive sedation and drowsiness
D. Respiratory depression and apnea
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Excessive sedation and drowsiness. Sertraline and diazepam are both central nervous system depressants, which can lead to sedation and drowsiness especially during the initial days of therapy due to the body adjusting to the medication. This is a common side effect of these drugs and can impact the individual's alertness and ability to function normally.
Rationale:
- A: Excitement and irritability are more commonly associated with stimulant medications, not with sertraline and diazepam.
- B: Mental confusion and anterograde amnesia are more commonly seen with benzodiazepines like diazepam, but are not typically the main adverse effects during the first days of therapy.
- D: Respiratory depression and apnea are serious side effects of central nervous system depressants, but they are not commonly observed during the initial days of therapy with sertraline and diazepam.
A nurse is examining the various factors that lead to disease and suggests several areas where
A. Which of the following models would the nurse most likely use?
B. Epidemiologic triangle
C. Health promotion
D. Web of causality
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Web of causality. This model emphasizes the complexity of disease causation by considering multiple interacting factors. It recognizes that diseases result from a web of interconnected factors rather than a simple cause-effect relationship. The nurse would most likely use this model to understand the intricate relationships between biological, social, and environmental factors contributing to disease.
Option A: "Which of the following models would the nurse most likely use?" is not a model itself but a question, so it is not a valid choice.
Option B: Epidemiologic triangle focuses on the host, agent, and environment as the three key factors contributing to disease causation, which is a simpler model than the web of causality.
Option C: Health promotion is a strategy to prevent disease rather than a model that explains the multifactorial nature of disease causation.
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
A. Rate of growth
B. Ability to cause death
C. Size of cells
D. Cell contents E) Ability to spread
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.
A mother conveys concern over the fact that she is not certain if her newborn is receiving enough nutrients from breastfeeding. This is the baby's first clinic visit after birth. What information can you provide that will help alleviate her fears regarding nutrient status for her newborn?
A. Monitor the infant's output; as long as at least six or more diapers are changed in a 24-hour period, the baby is receiving sufficient intake.
B. Tell the mother that if a baby is satisfied with feeding, she or he will be content and not fussy.
C. Tell the mother that breast milk contains everything required for the infant and not to worry about nutrition.
D. Provide nutrition information in the form of pamphlets for the mother to take home with her so that she uses them as a point of reference.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Monitoring the infant's output through diaper changes is a reliable indicator of sufficient nutrient intake.
Step 2: Six or more diapers changed in a 24-hour period signifies that the baby is getting enough nutrients from breastfeeding.
Step 3: This method is practical and easy for the mother to observe and track regularly.
Step 4: It reassures the mother that her newborn is receiving adequate nutrition, addressing her concerns effectively.
Summary:
- Choice A is correct as it provides a tangible and practical method for assessing the baby's nutrient intake.
- Choice B is incorrect as satisfaction with feeding does not directly correlate with nutrient intake.
- Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not offer a practical solution.
- Choice D is incorrect as providing pamphlets may not address the mother's immediate concerns about the baby's nutrient status.
While taking a detailed history, what should the nurse include?
A. Functional status
B. Data focusing on the client complaint
C. A focused assessment of the client complaint
D. Family history for the past three generations
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Functional status. Including functional status in the history is essential as it provides information about the client's ability to perform activities of daily living. This information is crucial for assessing the client's overall health and well-being. Functional status helps the nurse understand the impact of health issues on the client's daily life and helps in planning appropriate care interventions.
B: Data focusing on the client complaint is too narrow and may not provide a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status.
C: A focused assessment of the client complaint may overlook other important aspects of the client's health that could impact their overall well-being.
D: Family history for the past three generations is not typically included in a detailed history-taking process and may not be directly relevant to the client's current health status.
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
A. Risk
B. Problem focused
C. Health promotion
D. Collaborative problem
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Health promotion. In this scenario, the nurse identified the patient's desire to enhance urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, indicating a readiness for positive change. Health promotion diagnoses focus on improving well-being and enhancing quality of life. This diagnosis supports the patient's proactive approach to managing their condition.
Incorrect choices:
A: Risk - This diagnosis would be used if the patient was at risk for complications related to urinary elimination, not actively seeking to improve it.
B: Problem focused - This type of diagnosis would be used if the patient was experiencing issues with urinary elimination that needed to be addressed.
D: Collaborative problem - This diagnosis would involve identifying a problem that requires collaboration between healthcare professionals to resolve, which is not the case in this scenario.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is 26 weeks gestation and has a history of gestational diabetes. Which of the following actions is most important for the nurse to monitor during this pregnancy?
A. Blood glucose levels and fetal growth
B. Urine protein levels and blood pressure
C. Maternal weight gain and diet
D. Fetal heart rate and activity patterns
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Blood glucose levels and fetal growth. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in managing gestational diabetes to prevent complications for both the mother and baby. High blood glucose levels can lead to macrosomia (excessive fetal growth). Monitoring fetal growth is important to ensure the baby is growing appropriately.
Choice B is incorrect because urine protein levels and blood pressure are typically monitored for preeclampsia, not specifically for a patient with gestational diabetes. Choice C is incorrect because while maternal weight gain and diet are important factors, monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence in managing gestational diabetes. Choice D is incorrect because while fetal heart rate and activity patterns are important, monitoring blood glucose levels is more crucial in this scenario due to the patient's history of gestational diabetes.
About the vascularization of the uterus we can state the following:
A. the arteries branch off the common iliac artery;
B. the arteries are branches off the abdominal aorta;
C. the veins open in the inferior vena cava;
D. the arteries are branches off the internal iliac artery;
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the arteries supplying the uterus arise from the abdominal aorta. The uterine arteries branch off the anterior division of the internal iliac artery, which itself arises from the posterior division of the internal iliac artery. This vascular supply ensures that the uterus receives oxygenated blood rich in nutrients necessary for its proper function.
Choice A is incorrect because the common iliac artery does not directly supply blood to the uterus. Choice C is incorrect because the veins draining the uterus ultimately empty into the internal iliac veins, which then drain into the common iliac veins and not directly into the inferior vena cava. Choice D is incorrect because while the uterine arteries are indeed branches off the internal iliac artery, the internal iliac artery itself arises from the common iliac artery and not directly from the abdominal aorta.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 79 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.